Tutorials › VEE Accounting and Finance › Diversification Benefit Versus Average Standalone Risk

VEE Accounting and Finance · Portfolio Diversification · Tutorial 544 of 996

Diversification Benefit Versus Average Standalone Risk

Learn how asset weights and return differences determine the variance reduction from diversification, and how to distinguish that result from comparisons involving standard deviations.

Intermediate 10 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Define the portfolio-weighted average of standalone variances.
  • Derive the pairwise formula for the variance reduction.
  • Relate the diversification benefit to correlation and return volatility.
  • Calculate and verify variance gaps in two- and three-asset portfolios.
  • Identify why the result requires nonnegative portfolio weights.
  • Distinguish variance comparisons from standard-deviation comparisons.

What Does “Diversification Benefit” Compare?

A portfolio combines assets whose returns may move together or differently. Even when the holdings and their weights are fixed, the portfolio’s variance can be lower than the weighted average of the assets’ individual variances. The difference measures a specific diversification benefit: it compares portfolio variance with the portfolio-weighted average of standalone variances, not with an unweighted average unless the weights happen to be equal.

Throughout, consider returns over the same period. Let \(R_i\) be the return on asset \(i\), \(w_i\) its portfolio weight, and \(R_p=\sum_{i=1}^n w_iR_i\) the portfolio return. Assume the weights are fixed, sum to one, and are nonnegative, and that all returns have finite variances. Write \(\sigma_i^2=\operatorname{Var}(R_i)\). No particular probability distribution is required; the calculations use only variances and covariances.

Definition: The portfolio-weighted average standalone variance is \(\sum_{i=1}^n w_i\sigma_i^2\). The variance reduction, or diversification benefit in variance units, is \(\sum_{i=1}^n w_i\sigma_i^2-\operatorname{Var}(R_p)\). A positive value means portfolio variance is below that weighted average.

This comparison is meaningful when the weights are nonnegative: each standalone variance then receives a nonnegative weight. It is not the same as comparing the portfolio’s variance with the unweighted average of asset variances, and it is not itself a comparison of standard deviations. Variance is measured in squared-return units; standard deviation is measured in return units.

The Pairwise Variance Identity

The gap can be expressed entirely in terms of pairwise return differences. This form explains why imperfect co-movement can reduce portfolio variance.

$$ \sum_{i=1}^n w_i\sigma_i^2-\operatorname{Var}(R_p) = \sum_{i<j}w_iw_j\operatorname{Var}(R_i-R_j). $$

To justify the identity, expand the variance of a weighted sum:

$$ \operatorname{Var}(R_p) = \sum_i w_i^2\operatorname{Var}(R_i) + 2\sum_{i<j}w_iw_j\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_j). $$

Subtract this expression from \(\sum_i w_i\operatorname{Var}(R_i)\). Since the weights sum to one, \(w_i-w_i^2=w_i\sum_{j\ne i}w_j\). Thus each asset’s remaining variance term can be allocated across its pairs with the other assets:

$$ \begin{aligned} \sum_i w_i\operatorname{Var}(R_i)-\operatorname{Var}(R_p) &= \sum_i w_i(1-w_i)\operatorname{Var}(R_i) -2\sum_{i<j}w_iw_j\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_j)\\ &= \sum_{i<j}w_iw_j \left[ \operatorname{Var}(R_i)+\operatorname{Var}(R_j) -2\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_j) \right]\\ &= \sum_{i<j}w_iw_j\operatorname{Var}(R_i-R_j). \end{aligned} $$

The last equality follows from the variance-of-a-difference formula. With nonnegative weights, every term on the right is nonnegative. Therefore the portfolio variance cannot exceed the portfolio-weighted average standalone variance. It is strictly lower if at least one pair with positive weights has a return difference with positive variance.

The equality condition deserves care. The gap is zero exactly when \(\operatorname{Var}(R_i-R_j)=0\) for every pair with positive weights. A variance of zero means the difference is constant with probability one; it does not require the two returns to be identical. For example, if one return is always 1 percentage point higher than another, their difference is constant and has zero variance.

How Correlation Determines the Pairwise Benefit

For assets with positive standard deviations, define their correlation as \(\rho_{ij}=\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_j)/(\sigma_i\sigma_j)\). Then:

$$ \operatorname{Var}(R_i-R_j) = \sigma_i^2+\sigma_j^2-2\rho_{ij}\sigma_i\sigma_j = (\sigma_i-\sigma_j)^2+2\sigma_i\sigma_j(1-\rho_{ij}). $$

If \(\rho_{ij}<1\), this pairwise difference variance is positive whenever both standard deviations are positive. Consequently, if two positively weighted, risky assets have correlation below one, their pair contributes a strictly positive amount to the variance gap. Correlation alone does not determine the size of the benefit: the weights and the assets’ volatility levels also matter. If an asset has zero standard deviation, its correlation with another asset is undefined, so use the variance-of-the-difference formula directly.

A separate but related result compares standard deviations. For nonnegative weights, covariance cannot exceed the product of standard deviations, so:

$$ \operatorname{Var}(R_p) \leq \left(\sum_i w_i\sigma_i\right)^2, \qquad \operatorname{SD}(R_p)\leq\sum_i w_i\sigma_i. $$

This is a comparison with the weighted average of standalone standard deviations. It is not obtained by taking the square root of the weighted average variance: in general, \(\sqrt{\sum_i w_i\sigma_i^2}\) and \(\sum_i w_i\sigma_i\) are different quantities.

Worked Example: Two Assets With Unequal Volatility

A hypothetical fund holds 40% in Asset A and 60% in Asset B for one year. Their expected annual returns are 6% and 9%, their annual standard deviations are 10% and 20%, and their correlation is 0.25. The joint return distribution is unspecified; assume only these moments and finite variances. Find the weighted average standalone variance, the portfolio variance, and the variance reduction.

Method and inputs. Convert the standard deviations to decimals: \(\sigma_A=0.10\), \(\sigma_B=0.20\), \(w_A=0.40\), and \(w_B=0.60\). The means do not enter this variance calculation.

First calculate the variances and covariance:

$$ \sigma_A^2=0.10^2=0.0100,\qquad \sigma_B^2=0.20^2=0.0400,\qquad \operatorname{Cov}(R_A,R_B)=0.25(0.10)(0.20)=0.0050. $$

The weighted average standalone variance is:

$$ 0.40(0.0100)+0.60(0.0400)=0.0040+0.0240=0.0280. $$

Now use the two-asset portfolio variance formula:

$$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{Var}(R_p) &=w_A^2\sigma_A^2+w_B^2\sigma_B^2 +2w_Aw_B\operatorname{Cov}(R_A,R_B)\\ &=(0.40)^2(0.0100)+(0.60)^2(0.0400) +2(0.40)(0.60)(0.0050)\\ &=0.0016+0.0144+0.0024\\ &=0.0184. \end{aligned} $$

The gap is \(0.0280-0.0184=0.0096\). Check it using the pairwise identity: \(\operatorname{Var}(R_A-R_B)=0.0100+0.0400-2(0.0050)=0.0400\), so \(w_Aw_B\operatorname{Var}(R_A-R_B)=(0.40)(0.60)(0.0400)=0.0096\), as required. The portfolio standard deviation is \(\sqrt{0.0184}=0.1356\), or 13.56% to two decimal places; the weighted average standalone standard deviation is \(0.40(10\%)+0.60(20\%)=16\%\).

Common mistake avoided: Do not use correlation as if it were covariance. The covariance is \(0.25(0.10)(0.20)=0.0050\), not 0.25. Using 0.25 directly would produce an incorrect portfolio variance.

Several Assets: Add the Pairwise Contributions

With more than two assets, each pair contributes \(w_iw_j\operatorname{Var}(R_i-R_j)\) to the total gap. A pair with a small weight product may contribute little even if its returns differ substantially. Conversely, a heavily weighted pair with materially different movements can account for a large part of the reduction.

Worked Example: Three Assets and Three Correlations

A hypothetical portfolio invests 20%, 30%, and 50% in Assets A, B, and C. Each has an annual standard deviation of 10%; their expected annual returns are 4%, 7%, and 10%. The pairwise correlations are \(\rho_{AB}=0.20\), \(\rho_{AC}=0.50\), and \(\rho_{BC}=0.80\). Assume a joint distribution with these moments; no normality assumption is needed. Calculate the variance gap and verify the portfolio variance.

The correlation inputs are internally feasible: the determinant of the correlation matrix is \(1+2(0.20)(0.50)(0.80)-(0.20^2+0.50^2+0.80^2)=0.23>0\), and its leading principal minors are positive.

All standalone variances equal \(0.10^2=0.0100\), so their portfolio-weighted average is \(0.0100\). Compute each pair’s contribution to the gap:

$$ \begin{aligned} A,B:\quad &(0.20)(0.30)\left[0.0100+0.0100-2(0.20)(0.10)(0.10)\right]\\ &=0.0600(0.0160)=0.00096,\\ A,C:\quad &(0.20)(0.50)\left[0.0100+0.0100-2(0.50)(0.10)(0.10)\right]\\ &=0.1000(0.0100)=0.00100,\\ B,C:\quad &(0.30)(0.50)\left[0.0100+0.0100-2(0.80)(0.10)(0.10)\right]\\ &=0.1500(0.0040)=0.00060. \end{aligned} $$

The total variance reduction is \(0.00096+0.00100+0.00060=0.00256\). Therefore the portfolio variance is \(0.0100-0.00256=0.00744\).

Check by direct expansion. The variance terms are \((0.20^2+0.30^2+0.50^2)(0.0100)=0.0038\). The covariance terms are \(2[(0.20)(0.30)(0.0020)+(0.20)(0.50)(0.0050)+(0.30)(0.50)(0.0080)]=2(0.00012+0.00050+0.00120)=0.00364\). Their sum is \(0.0038+0.00364=0.00744\), confirming the result. The portfolio standard deviation is \(\sqrt{0.00744}=8.63\%\) to two decimal places.

Common mistake avoided: The three pairwise contributions are all needed. Omitting a pair, or entering a correlation in place of its covariance, breaks the identity and gives a gap that will not reconcile with direct portfolio variance.

When the Comparison Can Fail

The nonnegative-weight condition matters. If short selling is permitted, a weight can be negative, and some products \(w_iw_j\) in the pairwise identity are negative. The identity remains algebraically true for weights summing to one, but it no longer guarantees that the portfolio variance is below the weighted sum of standalone variances. That weighted sum may also be a poor description of an “average” when some weights are negative.

Worked Example: A Short Position Reverses the Inequality

A hypothetical one-year portfolio holds 120% in Asset A and shorts Asset B by 20%, so the weights sum to one. Both assets have annual standard deviation 10%, and their correlation is 0.50. Their expected returns are unspecified and irrelevant; assume finite variances with the stated correlation. Compare the portfolio variance with the algebraic weighted sum of standalone variances.

The variances are both \(0.10^2=0.0100\), and the covariance is \(0.50(0.10)(0.10)=0.0050\). The weighted sum of standalone variances is \(1.20(0.0100)-0.20(0.0100)=0.0100\).

Direct calculation gives:

$$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{Var}(R_p) &=(1.20)^2(0.0100)+(-0.20)^2(0.0100) +2(1.20)(-0.20)(0.0050)\\ &=0.0144+0.0004-0.0024\\ &=0.0124. \end{aligned} $$

Thus portfolio variance \(0.0124\) exceeds the weighted sum \(0.0100\). The identity checks the signed gap: \(w_Aw_B\operatorname{Var}(R_A-R_B)=(1.20)(-0.20)(0.0100+0.0100-2(0.0050))=-0.0024\), which equals \(0.0100-0.0124\). The negative pair weight explains why the long-only inequality does not apply.

Common mistake avoided: Do not conclude that the variance gap must be nonnegative just because the weights sum to one. For this inequality, the weights must also be nonnegative.

Practical Interpretation and Exam Traps

The identity is useful because it separates the size of the variance reduction from the portfolio’s expected return. Expected returns matter for evaluating a portfolio’s reward, but the gap here is determined by weights and the variability of pairwise return differences. A lower correlation generally increases that difference variance when asset volatilities are positive, but it does not by itself establish which of two portfolios has the better return-risk tradeoff.

When interpreting a result, check the comparison and units before drawing a conclusion:

  • Use the portfolio weights. The benchmark is \(\sum_i w_i\sigma_i^2\), not automatically the simple average of the variances.
  • Keep variances and standard deviations distinct. A variance gap is in squared-return units. If reporting standard deviations, take the square root of the portfolio variance only after calculating it.
  • Check the correlation-to-covariance conversion. Use \(\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_j)=\rho_{ij}\sigma_i\sigma_j\).
  • Check the weights’ signs. Nonnegative weights make every pairwise term nonnegative; short positions can reverse the inequality.
  • State the equality condition precisely. A zero gap requires every positively weighted pair’s return difference to have zero variance, not necessarily identical returns.

For a long-only portfolio, the pairwise identity provides both a proof and a calculation check. Calculate the portfolio variance by the covariance formula, calculate the gap by summing pairwise difference variances, and confirm that the two approaches agree. This algebraic view of diversification is aligned with the SOA VEE Accounting and Finance syllabus.

Check Your Understanding

For each problem, use the same return period throughout. Unless stated otherwise, assume finite second moments and no specified distributional form.

  1. A hypothetical two-asset portfolio has weights 0.30 and 0.70, annual standard deviations 12% and 8%, and correlation 0.50. Find the portfolio-weighted average standalone variance and the variance reduction. (Answer: weighted average variance \(0.0088\); variance reduction \(0.002352\).)
  2. Three equally weighted assets each have variance \(0.0225\). Their correlations are 0.40, 0.10, and \(-0.20\) for the three distinct pairs. Find the portfolio variance and the variance gap; assume the correlation matrix is valid. (Answer: portfolio variance \(0.0090\); variance gap \(0.0135\).)
  3. Suppose \(R_2=R_1+0.03\) with probability one, and \(\operatorname{Var}(R_1)=0.04\). A long-only portfolio uses weights 0.40 and 0.60. Find its variance and the weighted average standalone variance. Are the returns identical? (Answer: both variances are \(0.04\), the gap is zero, and the returns are not identical; their difference is constant.)
  4. A portfolio uses weights 1.20 and \(-0.20\). Each asset has standard deviation 10%, and their correlation is 0.50. Calculate the portfolio variance and compare it with the algebraic weighted sum of standalone variances. (Answer: portfolio variance \(0.0124\), weighted sum \(0.0100\); the portfolio variance is larger.)
  5. A hypothetical portfolio holds 25% and 75% in two assets with annual standard deviations 8% and 16%, and correlation \(-0.25\). Find the covariance, portfolio variance, and variance reduction; then give the portfolio standard deviation to two decimal places. (Answer: covariance \(-0.0032\), portfolio variance \(0.0136\), variance reduction \(0.0072\), portfolio standard deviation \(11.66\%\).)
Clinical Biostats