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VEE Accounting and Finance · Option Value and Basic Relationships · Tutorial 933 of 996

Interest Rates and European Call Values

See how present-value reasoning and paired option-price comparisons explain the positive effect of risk-free rates on European call values.

Advanced 12 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Explain why a higher risk-free rate lowers the present value of a call’s exercise price.
  • Distinguish discounting the strike from repricing the probabilities used in an option model.
  • Compare call values across rates in a one-period binomial model.
  • Derive the Black–Scholes sensitivity of a European call to the risk-free force of interest.
  • Identify when the positive rate effect applies and avoid common rate-comparison errors.

Why Interest Rates Matter to a Call

A European call gives its holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy an asset for a fixed exercise price \(K\) at a specified future date \(T\). If the stock price at that date is \(S_T\), the call’s payoff is \(\max(S_T-K,0)\). For a call on a non-dividend-paying stock, a higher risk-free rate generally raises the call’s value, all else held constant.

One useful intuition is that the call holder pays \(K\) only at expiration if the call is exercised. A higher rate reduces the present value of that future payment. But this intuition is not, by itself, a complete option-pricing calculation: changing the rate also changes the probabilities used to price future payoffs in a risk-neutral model. Both effects must be handled consistently.

Definition: The risk-free rate is the rate used to discount certain future cash flows in the pricing model. With an effective annual rate \(i\), the present value of \(K\) due in \(T\) years is \(K/(1+i)^T\). With a constant force of interest \(\delta\), it is \(Ke^{-\delta T}\). A European call can be exercised only at expiration, and its expiration payoff is \(\max(S_T-K,0)\).

The result in this tutorial concerns a European call on a non-dividend-paying stock. The stock price, exercise price, time to expiration, volatility, and other model inputs are held fixed while the risk-free rate changes. It is a comparative-statics result: it describes how the model value responds to a change in one input, not a guarantee that an observed market price will rise whenever a quoted interest rate rises.

Present Value of the Exercise Price

Begin with the certain cash flow, rather than with the full option. If \(K\) dollars are due in \(T\) years and the effective annual rate is \(i\), then the amount that would grow to \(K\) over that period is its present value:

$$ PV(K)=\frac{K}{(1+i)^T}. $$

For fixed positive \(K\) and \(T\), increasing \(i\) increases the accumulation factor \((1+i)^T\), so it decreases \(PV(K)\). In the continuous-compounding convention, \(PV(K)=Ke^{-\delta T}\), which likewise decreases as \(\delta\) increases. This makes the delayed payment of the strike less costly in present-value terms.

Worked Example: Comparing the Present Value of a Strike

A hypothetical European call has an exercise price of $100 due in two years. Compare the present value of the exercise price at effective annual rates of 5% and 10%. This calculation isolates the strike-discounting effect; it does not, on its own, determine the call’s value.

Method. Discount the same future amount for the same term at each effective annual rate:

$$ PV_{5\%}=\frac{100}{(1.05)^2} =\frac{100}{1.1025} =90.7029\ldots $$

To the nearest cent, the present value at 5% is $90.70.

$$ PV_{10\%}=\frac{100}{(1.10)^2} =\frac{100}{1.21} =82.6446\ldots $$

To the nearest cent, the present value at 10% is $82.64. The increase in the rate lowers the present value by $8.06, after rounding each amount to cents. The calculation confirms the direction of the strike effect. It would be a mistake to conclude that the call itself must rise by exactly $8.06: the call is a contingent payoff, not a certain payment of the strike.

A Paired Price Comparison in a Binomial Model

A one-period binomial model makes the full comparison concrete. Assume a stock currently costs \(S_0\), pays no dividends, and will have one of two possible prices at the end of the period: \(S_u\) or \(S_d\). The risk-free investment grows by a gross factor \(1+i\) over the period. Assume the model permits no arbitrage, so the risk-free gross return lies between the stock’s down and up gross returns. In this model, the risk-neutral probability of the up state is

$$ q=\frac{(1+i)-d}{u-d}, $$

where \(u=S_u/S_0\) and \(d=S_d/S_0\). The call’s price is the discounted risk-neutral expected payoff:

$$ C_0=\frac{q\max(S_u-K,0)+(1-q)\max(S_d-K,0)}{1+i}. $$

Here \(q\) is a pricing probability implied by the model, not a claim about the stock’s actual chance of rising. When the interest rate changes, \(q\) changes as well as the discount factor. The correct paired comparison recalculates both.

Worked Example: Repricing a Call at Two Risk-Free Rates

A hypothetical stock costs $100 today. In one year it will be either $120 or $80. A European call has an exercise price of $100. Assume no dividends and a one-period binomial model. Compare the call value at effective annual rates of 0% and 10%. In both comparisons the stock outcomes and exercise price are held fixed.

Method. The stock’s up and down factors are \(u=120/100=1.20\) and \(d=80/100=0.80\). The call pays \(\max(120-100,0)=20\) in the up state and \(\max(80-100,0)=0\) in the down state.

At 0%, the risk-neutral up probability is

$$ q_0=\frac{1.00-0.80}{1.20-0.80} =\frac{0.20}{0.40} =0.50. $$

The rate is between the two stock returns, so the no-arbitrage condition holds. Discounting the risk-neutral expected payoff gives

$$ C_0^{(0\%)}=\frac{(0.50)(20)+(0.50)(0)}{1.00} =10. $$

The call is worth $10.00 at 0%.

At 10%, the risk-neutral up probability is

$$ q_{10\%}=\frac{1.10-0.80}{1.20-0.80} =\frac{0.30}{0.40} =0.75. $$

This rate also satisfies the no-arbitrage condition because \(0.80<1.10<1.20\). The price is

$$ C_0^{(10\%)}= \frac{(0.75)(20)+(0.25)(0)}{1.10} =\frac{15}{1.10} =13.6363\ldots. $$

To the nearest cent, the call is worth $13.64 at 10%, compared with $10.00 at 0%. The higher rate lowers the discount factor, but it also raises the risk-neutral weight on the up state in this model. The correctly repriced call is higher. The common mistake this example avoids is changing the discount rate while incorrectly keeping the risk-neutral probability fixed.

Black–Scholes Rate Sensitivity

A standard continuous-time model gives a precise result. Assume a European call on a non-dividend-paying stock, no arbitrage, continuous trading without transaction costs or trading restrictions, a constant risk-free force of interest \(\delta\), and a constant volatility \(\sigma>0\). The model assumes the stock follows geometric Brownian motion, so its continuously compounded returns have constant volatility. For \(T>0\), the Black–Scholes call value is

$$ c=S_0N(d_1)-Ke^{-\delta T}N(d_2), \qquad d_1=\frac{\ln(S_0/K)+(\delta+\sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}, \qquad d_2=d_1-\sigma\sqrt{T}, $$

where \(N(x)\) is the cumulative distribution function of a standard normal random variable. This model formula does not directly apply without adjustment when the stock pays dividends or when its assumptions are not appropriate.

The sensitivity of the call value to \(\delta\), often called call rho, is positive. The short derivation below shows why; it also makes clear why simply discounting the strike is not the entire argument. Write \(\phi(x)\) for the standard normal density. Differentiating the pricing formula with respect to \(\delta\), while holding \(S_0,K,T,\sigma\) fixed, gives

$$ \frac{\partial c}{\partial\delta} = S_0\phi(d_1)\frac{\sqrt{T}}{\sigma} +KT e^{-\delta T}N(d_2) -Ke^{-\delta T}\phi(d_2)\frac{\sqrt{T}}{\sigma}. $$

The two density terms cancel. To verify the cancellation, use \(d_1=d_2+\sigma\sqrt{T}\). Then

$$ \frac{d_1^2-d_2^2}{2} =d_2\sigma\sqrt{T}+\frac{\sigma^2T}{2} =\ln(S_0/K)+\delta T. $$

Since \(\phi(x)=e^{-x^2/2}/\sqrt{2\pi}\), this identity implies

$$ \frac{S_0\phi(d_1)}{Ke^{-\delta T}\phi(d_2)} = \frac{S_0}{K}e^{\delta T} e^{-(d_1^2-d_2^2)/2} =1. $$

Substituting this equality into the derivative removes the density terms and leaves

$$ \frac{\partial c}{\partial\delta} =KT e^{-\delta T}N(d_2)>0. $$

For positive \(K\), positive \(T\), and finite model inputs, \(e^{-\delta T}>0\) and \(N(d_2)>0\). Therefore the call value increases with the risk-free force of interest within these assumptions. The result is an exact model sensitivity, not merely a comparison of discounted strikes.

Worked Example: Comparing Black–Scholes Call Values

A hypothetical non-dividend-paying stock is priced at $100. A one-year European call has an exercise price of $100 and annual volatility of 20%. Using the Black–Scholes model, compare its value at constant risk-free forces of interest \(\delta=0.02\) and \(\delta=0.06\). Assume all other inputs remain unchanged and use the standard normal distribution.

Method. For \(\delta=0.02\), \(S_0=K=100\), \(T=1\), and \(\sigma=0.20\):

$$ d_1=\frac{0+(0.02+0.20^2/2)}{0.20} =\frac{0.04}{0.20}=0.20, \qquad d_2=0.20-0.20=0. $$

Using \(N(0.20)=0.5793\) and \(N(0)=0.5000\), and rounding only the final dollar value to cents,

$$ c_{0.02} =100(0.5793)-100e^{-0.02}(0.5000) \approx 57.9300-49.0099 =\$8.92. $$

For \(\delta=0.06\),

$$ d_1=\frac{0+(0.06+0.20^2/2)}{0.20} =\frac{0.08}{0.20}=0.40, \qquad d_2=0.40-0.20=0.20. $$

Using \(N(0.40)=0.6554\) and \(N(0.20)=0.5793\),

$$ c_{0.06} =100(0.6554)-100e^{-0.06}(0.5793) \approx 65.5400-54.5526 =\$10.99. $$

Thus, when the force of interest rises from 2% to 6%, the model call value rises from $8.92 to $10.99, an increase of $2.07. The calculation checks the positive direction predicted by the derivative. The method avoids treating the change in the discounted strike as though it were the entire change in the option price.

Common Mistake and Practical Interpretation

A tempting shortcut is to say that because the present value of the strike falls, the call must rise by exactly the same amount. That reasoning treats the option as if it were a certain payment of \(K\). A call pays only when the stock price exceeds \(K\), and its value depends on the distribution of possible payoffs as well as discounting.

For example, in the Black–Scholes comparison above, discounting $100 for one year gives \(100e^{-0.02}=\$98.02\) at 2% and \(100e^{-0.06}=\$94.18\) at 6%. A mistaken calculation would call the option-value increase the full difference, \(98.02-94.18=\$3.84\). The actual model values rise by $2.07, not $3.84. The error is using the change in the present value of a certain strike without accounting for the rate-driven changes in \(d_1\), \(d_2\), and the weighted option payoffs.

The useful conclusion is conditional but strong: under the stated non-dividend European-call assumptions, raising the risk-free rate while holding the other model inputs fixed raises the call value. The present-value argument supplies intuition; a consistent pricing model supplies the full comparison. This distinction is aligned with the SOA VEE Accounting and Finance syllabus.

Check Your Understanding

Work each problem using the stated assumptions, then check the final answer.

  1. A European call has an exercise price of $121 due in two years. Calculate the present value of the exercise price at effective annual rates of 0% and 10%. State the change in present value. (Answer: $121.00 at 0%; $100.00 at 10%; decrease of $21.00.)
  2. In a one-period binomial model, a non-dividend-paying stock costs $50 and will be either $60 or $40 in one year. A European call has exercise price $45, and the effective annual risk-free rate is 8%. Find the risk-neutral up probability and the call value. (Answer: \(q=0.70\); call value \(=\$9.72\) to the nearest cent.)
  3. Under Black–Scholes, let \(K=\$75\), \(T=2\), \(\delta=0.03\), and \(N(d_2)=0.4000\). Calculate \(\partial c/\partial\delta\). (Answer: \(75(2)e^{-0.06}(0.4000)=\$56.51\) per unit change in the force of interest.)
  4. In the one-period model, why is it incorrect to change the discount rate but leave the risk-neutral probability unchanged when repricing? (Answer: The risk-neutral probability \(q=((1+i)-d)/(u-d)\) depends on the risk-free rate, so both \(q\) and the discount factor must be recalculated.)
  5. State two assumptions needed for the positive Black–Scholes call sensitivity derived here. (Answer: For example, the call is European and the stock pays no dividends; the model also assumes constant volatility and a constant risk-free force of interest.)
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