Introduction
A standardized good may be offered for sale in two countries at different local-currency prices. To decide whether the difference matters, first express both prices in the same currency. If the good is genuinely identical and can be traded without cost or restriction, a persistent difference creates an incentive to buy where it is cheaper and sell where it is more expensive. That incentive is the central idea behind the law of one price.
The law gives a simple starting point for understanding purchasing power parity (PPP): if the same tradable good has the same price after currency conversion, the exchange rate connects the currencies' purchasing power over that good. This is an intuition built from an individual good, not a guarantee that every product or a broad price index will match across countries.
Convert First, Then Compare
The exchange-rate quotation must be read before doing any price comparison. In this tutorial, \(E\) is measured as domestic currency per one unit of foreign currency. Therefore, a foreign price is converted to domestic currency by multiplication: \(EP_F\). If the quotation is instead given as foreign currency per domestic currency, take its reciprocal to obtain \(E\) before applying the relationship.
A price gap alone is not proof of a profitable opportunity. A buyer comparing a domestic purchase with an imported purchase must also account for costs that apply to the import, such as freight, insurance, tariffs, or brokerage charges. Those costs can create a range of exchange rates and prices over which no trade is worthwhile, even though the sticker prices differ.
Worked Example: A Price Gap After Import Charges
A standardized machine component sells for $390 in the domestic market and for 240 foreign currency units abroad. The exchange rate is \(E=1.50\) domestic currency units per foreign currency unit. Importing the component costs an additional $15 in freight and $9 in tariffs. Should a domestic buyer import it, and what is the largest exchange rate at which importing remains profitable?
Method. Convert the foreign price, add import charges, and compare the landed cost with the domestic price. The common mistake is to compare sticker prices without adding the charges required to bring the component into the domestic market.
The converted foreign sticker price is \(240\times1.50=\$360\). Total import charges are \(\$15+\$9=\$24\), so the landed cost is \(\$360+\$24=\$384\).
The domestic price is $390, so importing saves \(\$390-\$384=\$6\) per component before any other unlisted costs. Importing is profitable under the stated assumptions.
For the break-even exchange rate, let the foreign price converted into domestic currency plus charges equal the domestic price: \(240E+24=390\). Thus \(240E=366\), and \(E=366/240=1.525\). At exactly 1.525 the buyer is indifferent; importing is profitable for \(E<1.525\), given these fixed charges.
Check. At \(E=1.525\), the converted sticker price is \(240\times1.525=\$366\); adding $24 gives $390, exactly the domestic price.
Why the Law of One Price Follows from Arbitrage
The law is not simply a claim that sellers always choose matching prices. Its basic justification is an incentive: with frictionless trade, a buyer can purchase the good in the lower-priced market and resell it in the higher-priced market. In this context, arbitrage means attempting to earn a profit from a price difference through offsetting purchases and sales, rather than by bearing the good's ordinary use or production risk.
Suppose the foreign price converted into domestic currency is below the domestic price: \(EP_F<P_D\). A trader can buy the good abroad for \(P_F\), pay \(EP_F\) in domestic currency after conversion, and sell it domestically for \(P_D\). With no costs, the gross price difference is \(P_D-EP_F>0\). The extra demand abroad tends to put upward pressure on the foreign price, while additional supply in the domestic market tends to put downward pressure on the domestic price. These pressures continue to reduce the gap while the trade remains available.
If instead \(P_D<EP_F\), the incentive runs in the other direction: buy domestically and sell abroad. Under the law's ideal assumptions, neither direction can offer a continuing positive gain when prices have adjusted. The resulting no-arbitrage condition is equality.
This is an economic argument about a price comparison, not a guarantee of instantaneous adjustment. It assumes that the goods are identical in relevant respects, that the quoted prices are accessible, that trade and resale are permitted, and that there are no material costs or barriers. If these assumptions fail, a price gap can persist without creating a feasible arbitrage.
Confirm that both prices refer to the same good, quality, quantity, and timing. Convert any per-package or per-weight quotes to the same unit.
Using \(E\) in domestic currency per foreign currency unit, calculate the converted foreign price \(EP_F\).
Add applicable freight, insurance, tariffs, and other charges to the purchase cost. Check whether import, export, and resale are actually feasible.
A positive gap after all relevant costs can create an arbitrage incentive. A gap that disappears once costs are included does not.
Transaction Costs and a No-Arbitrage Range
With trade costs, exact equality is generally too strong. Suppose importing a good costs an additional fixed amount \(C_I\) in domestic currency. A buyer prefers importing only if the landed import cost is below the domestic price:
If this inequality does not hold, it does not automatically follow that domestic sellers can profitably export the good. Exporting may involve a different set of costs, restrictions, or access conditions. When costs apply in both directions, they can leave a band of price differences within which neither import nor export arbitrage is profitable. The exact band depends on the costs and on which trades are feasible.
Worked Example: Finding a Break-Even Exchange Rate
A domestic instrument sells for $515. An identical instrument costs 300 foreign currency units abroad, and importing it incurs a fixed $10 domestic-currency charge. Calculate the landed import cost at \(E=1.66\), determine the saving relative to buying domestically, and find the exchange rate at which importing just breaks even.
Method. Apply the import-cost condition \(EP_F+C_I<P_D\). The common mistake is to omit the $10 charge or treat it as part of the foreign-currency price.
At \(E=1.66\), the foreign sticker price converts to \(300\times1.66=\$498\). The landed import cost is \(\$498+\$10=\$508\). Compared with the domestic price of $515, importing saves \(\$515-\$508=\$7\).
At break-even, \(300E+10=515\). Subtracting $10 gives \(300E=505\), so \(E=505/300=1.68333\ldots\). Thus, for \(E<1.68333\ldots\), importing is cheaper under the stated cost assumptions; at the threshold, the two options cost the same.
Check. At the threshold, \(300\times(505/300)+10=505+10=\$515\), which matches the domestic price. At \(E=1.66\), the calculated $508 landed cost is $7 below $515.
From One Good to Purchasing Power Parity
The purchasing-power intuition follows directly from the one-good comparison. The domestic buyer can use \(P_D\) domestic currency units to acquire one unit of the good. A foreign buyer can use \(P_F\) foreign currency units. At exchange rate \(E\), the foreign expenditure expressed in domestic currency is \(EP_F\). If the good is identical, freely tradable, and frictionless, equal prices imply that the two currency amounts buy the same good:
In this limited sense, the exchange rate links the currencies' purchasing power over the particular good. The argument also shows why a broad comparison of purchasing power might start by asking whether the same items have comparable converted prices. But one good cannot establish that the currencies have equal purchasing power over all goods and services. Many items are not tradable, product characteristics can differ, and trade costs can be substantial.
This distinction matters for the interpretation of the relationship. The law of one price is a statement about an identical good under specified trade conditions. Purchasing power parity extends the intuition from individual goods toward broader purchasing power comparisons. The one-good argument motivates that extension; it does not by itself prove that a country's entire price level matches another country's after currency conversion.
Worked Example: Correcting an Inverse Exchange-Rate Quote
A domestic-market price for a particular device is $470. The same device costs 300 foreign currency units. The available quotation is 0.64 foreign currency units per domestic currency unit, and importing the device incurs a $0.75 charge. Determine the foreign price in domestic currency, the import's landed cost, and whether importing offers a saving.
Method. First invert the quotation because it is given in foreign currency per domestic currency, not in the convention used here. Then convert the foreign price and add the import charge. The common mistake is to multiply 300 by 0.64, which would convert in the wrong direction.
The quotation is 0.64 foreign units per domestic unit, so the domestic-currency cost of one foreign unit is \(E=1/0.64=1.5625\). The foreign sticker price in domestic currency is \(300\times1.5625=\$468.75\).
Adding the $0.75 import charge gives a landed cost of \(\$468.75+\$0.75=\$469.50\). The domestic price is $470, so importing saves \(\$470-\$469.50=\$0.50\) per device, before any other unlisted costs.
Check. Since \(0.64\times1.5625=1\), the inverted quote has the required domestic-per-foreign units. Multiplying 300 foreign units by $1.5625 per foreign unit gives $468.75, and adding the specified charge gives $469.50.
Common Exam Traps and Economic Limits
- Reversing the exchange-rate quote. If \(E\) is domestic currency per foreign currency, multiply \(P_F\) by \(E\). If the quote is in the opposite direction, invert it first.
- Ignoring costs. A converted foreign sticker price below the domestic sticker price may still produce a higher landed cost after freight, tariffs, and other charges.
- Comparing nonidentical goods. A different grade, warranty, package size, delivery date, or service bundle is not an exact law-of-one-price comparison. Standardize the item before interpreting a price gap.
- Assuming a price gap guarantees arbitrage. Trade restrictions, limited resale access, delays, and risk can prevent a trader from carrying out the buy-low, sell-high transaction.
- Treating a one-good result as a whole-economy result. A matching price for one tradable good does not establish equality across all goods and services.
For an actuarial or business decision involving cross-border purchases, the useful question is not simply whether prices differ. It is whether a specific, identical item can be bought in one market, delivered and sold in the other, and still generate a positive margin after conversion and all relevant costs. That framing keeps the law of one price connected to its economic mechanism rather than treating it as an automatic equality in observed data.
Check Your Understanding
For each problem, use the stated exchange-rate quotation and include all listed charges before deciding whether a price gap permits profitable importing.
- A domestic price is $275. The foreign price is 160 foreign currency units, \(E=1.65\) domestic currency units per foreign unit, and import charges total $8. Is importing profitable, and by how much per unit? (Answer: Yes; landed cost \(160\times1.65+8=\$272\), so the saving is $3 per unit.)
- A domestic price is $492. The foreign price is 280 foreign units, and import charges are $12. At \(E=1.72\), is importing profitable? What is the break-even exchange rate? (Answer: No; landed cost is \(280\times1.72+12=\$493.60\), a $1.60 loss relative to domestic purchase; break-even \(E=(492-12)/280=1.7143\) domestic units per foreign unit, to four decimals.)
- A domestic price is $144 and the foreign price is 90 foreign units. The exchange rate is \(E=1.55\), and importing costs an additional $3. Is there a positive import margin, and what is the break-even exchange rate? (Answer: Yes; landed cost is \(90\times1.55+3=\$142.50\), so the margin is $1.50; break-even \(E=(144-3)/90=1.5667\), to four decimals.)
- An identical good costs $30 domestically and 20 foreign units abroad. Initially \(E=1.50\). Later the prices are $33 domestically and 21 foreign units abroad. What exchange rate makes the later prices equal after conversion, and at \(E=1.55\) how much higher is the domestic price than the converted foreign price? Assume no trade costs. (Answer: The equal-price exchange rate is \(33/21=1.5714\), to four decimals; at \(E=1.55\), the converted foreign price is \(21\times1.55=\$32.55\), so the domestic price is $0.45 higher.)
- A domestic price is $105. The foreign price is 70 foreign units and import costs are $4. What is the largest exchange rate at which importing is strictly cheaper? At \(E=1.44\), what is the import saving? (Answer: Importing is strictly cheaper when \(E<(105-4)/70=1.442857\ldots\); at \(E=1.44\), landed cost is \(70\times1.44+4=\$104.80\), so the saving is $0.20.)