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Sequences and Series Foundations · Tutorial 807 of 999

Bounded Sequences and Their Limits

Use the definition of convergence to prove boundedness, and distinguish this necessary condition from convergence itself.

Intermediate 8 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Define boundedness and convergence for a sequence
  • Prove that every convergent sequence is bounded
  • Explain why the finitely many early terms must be included in a bound
  • Show that a bounded sequence need not converge
  • Use unboundedness to conclude that a sequence cannot converge

Introduction

A sequence can approach a limit while its terms vary along the way. Convergence places an important restriction on that variation: a convergent sequence cannot have terms that grow without bound. The reverse, however, is not true. A sequence can stay within a fixed interval and still fail to approach any single number.

This distinction matters whenever you need to decide whether a sequence could converge. Boundedness is a necessary condition for convergence, so an unbounded sequence cannot converge. But boundedness by itself does not settle the question.

Key takeaway: Every convergent sequence is bounded, but not every bounded sequence converges.

Definitions: Boundedness and Convergence

A real sequence is a list of real numbers \(a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots\), indexed here by \(n\in\mathbb{N}=\{1,2,3,\ldots\}\).

Definition: A sequence \((a_n)\) is bounded if there is a real number \(M\geq 0\) such that \(|a_n|\leq M\) for every \(n\in\mathbb{N}\). Equivalently, all its terms lie in the interval \([-M,M]\) for some finite \(M\).

The bound \(M\) does not have to be the smallest possible bound. It only needs to work for every term, including the first terms.

Definition: A sequence \((a_n)\) converges to \(L\in\mathbb{R}\) if, for every \(\varepsilon>0\), there is an \(N\in\mathbb{N}\) such that \(n\geq N\) implies \(|a_n-L|<\varepsilon\). In this case, we write \(\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=L\).

Convergence concerns all terms from some point onward: they must lie as close as desired to \(L\). Boundedness concerns every term in the sequence. The proof that convergence implies boundedness must therefore account for both the terms sufficiently far along and the finitely many terms before that point.

Why Convergence Forces Boundedness

Suppose a sequence converges to \(L\). Apply the definition of convergence with the particular choice \(\varepsilon=1\). Then there is an index \(N\) such that every term from \(a_N\) onward is less than \(1\) unit from \(L\). By the triangle inequality, those terms are within \(|L|+1\) of zero. The terms before \(a_N\) are finite in number, so they also have a finite bound.

Theorem: Every convergent real sequence is bounded.

Proof of the Theorem

1
Use convergence with a fixed tolerance.
Assume \(a_n\to L\). Taking \(\varepsilon=1\) in the definition gives an \(N\in\mathbb{N}\) such that \(n\geq N\) implies \(|a_n-L|<1\).
2
Bound the tail.
For each \(n\geq N\), the triangle inequality gives \(|a_n|\leq |a_n-L|+|L|<1+|L|\). Thus all terms from \(a_N\) onward share the finite bound \(|L|+1\).
3
Include the initial terms.
If \(N>1\), the terms \(a_1,\ldots,a_{N-1}\) form a finite set, so their absolute values have a finite maximum \(B=\max\{|a_1|,\ldots,|a_{N-1}|\}\). Set \(M=\max\{B,|L|+1\}\). If \(N=1\), set \(M=|L|+1\); there are no initial terms to include.
4
Check the bound for every index.
For \(n<N\), \(|a_n|\leq B\leq M\) when there are initial terms. For \(n\geq N\), \(|a_n|<|L|+1\leq M\). Hence \(|a_n|\leq M\) for every \(n\in\mathbb{N}\), so the sequence is bounded.

The key idea is the split between a finite beginning and an eventually controlled tail. Convergence directly controls the tail, not necessarily the earlier terms. The finite beginning cannot make the sequence unbounded, because a finite set of real numbers always has a finite maximum absolute value. This completes the proof.

Worked Example: A Convergent Sequence with an Early Outlier

Worked Example: A Convergent Sequence with an Early Outlier

Define \(a_1=100\), and for \(n\geq 2\), define \(a_n=\frac{1}{n}\). Show that the sequence converges and is bounded.

To verify convergence to \(0\), let \(\varepsilon>0\). Choose \(N=\max\{2,\lfloor 1/\varepsilon\rfloor+1\}\), where \(\lfloor x\rfloor\) is the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\). Then \(N>1/\varepsilon\), and \(n\geq N\) implies \(n>1/\varepsilon\). Therefore, for such \(n\),

$$|a_n-0|=\frac{1}{n}<\varepsilon.$$

So \(a_n\to 0\). To bound the sequence, the first term has \(|a_1|=100\). For \(n\geq 2\), \(0<1/n\leq 1/2\), so \(|a_n|\leq 1/2\leq 100\). Thus \(M=100\) is a bound for every term.

Check: The proposed limit satisfies the definition because every \(n\geq N\) gives \(|a_n-0|<\varepsilon\). The bound includes the exceptional first term as well as the tail: \(|a_1|=100\), and every later absolute value is at most \(1/2\). Ignoring the first term would give an invalid bound for the full sequence.

The Converse Is False

The theorem gives one implication: convergence guarantees boundedness. It does not say that boundedness guarantees convergence. A bounded sequence may keep moving between different values rather than settling near one number.

Worked Example: Bounded but Not Convergent

Consider \(a_n=(-1)^n\). For every positive integer \(n\), \(a_n\) is either \(1\) or \(-1\). Therefore \(|a_n|=1\), and \(M=1\) bounds the sequence.

To show that it does not converge, suppose instead that \(a_n\to L\). Use the definition with \(\varepsilon=1/2\). There would be an \(N\) such that every \(n\geq N\) satisfies \(|a_n-L|<1/2\). There is an even integer \(p\geq N\) and an odd integer \(q\geq N\). Since \(a_p=1\) and \(a_q=-1\), the supposed condition gives \(|1-L|<1/2\) and \(|-1-L|<1/2\). But the triangle inequality then implies

$$2=|1-(-1)|\leq |1-L|+|L-(-1)|<\frac12+\frac12=1.$$

This says \(2<1\), a contradiction. Therefore the sequence is bounded but does not converge.

Check: The terms really do satisfy the bound \(|a_n|\leq 1\) for every index, while the assumed limit would force both \(1\) and \(-1\) to lie within \(1/2\) of the same \(L\). The contradiction confirms nonconvergence.

Important distinction: Being trapped in a finite interval does not mean that a sequence approaches one particular number. The terms must also settle arbitrarily close to a single limit for the sequence to converge.

Using Unboundedness to Rule Out Convergence

The theorem can also be used in reverse by its contrapositive: if a sequence is unbounded, then it cannot converge. This conclusion is valid because a convergent sequence would have to be bounded.

Worked Example: An Unbounded Sequence Cannot Converge

Consider \(a_n=n\). To show that it is unbounded, let \(M\geq 0\) be any proposed bound. Choose \(n=\lfloor M\rfloor+1\). Then \(n\in\mathbb{N}\) and \(n>M\), so \(|a_n|=n>M\). Since this works for every proposed \(M\), no finite number bounds the sequence.

If \(a_n\) converged, the theorem would imply that it was bounded. That contradicts the calculation above. Hence \(a_n=n\) does not converge.

Check: For every proposed bound \(M\), the chosen term has \(|a_n|>M\), so the sequence is indeed unbounded. The theorem then rules out convergence; no guess about a possible finite limit is needed.

A Common Mistake

A frequent error is to treat boundedness as if it were a test that proves convergence. For example, one might reason:

$$-1\leq (-1)^n\leq 1\text{ for every }n,\quad\text{so }(-1)^n\text{ converges.}$$

The first statement is true, but the conclusion does not follow from it. The sequence \((-1)^n\) alternates between \(1\) and \(-1\), and the proof above shows that it has no limit. The correct conclusion from the displayed inequalities is only that the sequence is bounded.

The implication that does hold goes in the other direction: if a sequence converges, then it must be bounded. Thus, finding an unbounded sequence proves it cannot converge, while finding a bounded sequence alone does not establish convergence.

Why This Result Matters

This theorem gives a quick necessary condition for convergence. Before trying to identify a limit, you can ask whether the terms have any finite bound at all. If the sequence is unbounded, the theorem rules out convergence immediately.

When a sequence is bounded, more analysis is needed. The alternating example shows why: boundedness controls how far the terms can go, but not whether they gather around one value. In later work on sequences, boundedness will be considered alongside additional properties; it is not a substitute for checking the definition of convergence.

Summary: A convergent sequence has a bounded tail because its terms eventually lie within \(1\) of its limit. Its finitely many earlier terms are also bounded, so the whole sequence is bounded. The converse is false: a bounded sequence may fail to converge.

Check Your Understanding

Answer these questions using the definitions and theorem from this tutorial.

  1. In the proof that convergence implies boundedness, why is it not enough to bound only the terms \(a_n\) for \(n\geq N\)?
  2. Why can the terms \(a_1,\ldots,a_{N-1}\) always be included in a finite bound?
  3. Give a bound for the sequence \(b_n=3+(-1)^n\).
  4. Explain why boundedness alone cannot prove that a sequence converges.
  5. What can you conclude if you prove that a sequence is unbounded?

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