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Integrable Functions and the Dominated Convergence Theorem · Tutorial 297 of 798

Proof of the Dominated Convergence Theorem

See how Fatou’s lemma turns an integrable bound into convergence of integrals, and why the same argument also gives convergence in \(L^1\).

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What You'll Learn

  • State the Dominated Convergence Theorem on a general measure space, including its almost-everywhere hypotheses.
  • Prove convergence of the integrals by applying Fatou’s lemma to the integrable bound plus and minus the sequence.
  • Deduce convergence in \(L^1\) by applying Fatou’s lemma to the difference from the limit.
  • Check domination, pointwise limits, and exact integrals in three examples.
  • Identify how failure of an integrable dominating function can invalidate convergence of integrals.

From Fatou’s Lemma to Dominated Convergence

Pointwise convergence alone does not justify passing a limit through a Lebesgue integral. The Dominated Convergence Theorem supplies a sufficient condition: all functions in the sequence must be bounded in absolute value by one fixed integrable function. This tutorial proves the theorem using Fatou’s lemma, whose key role is to convert nonnegativity into an inequality for integrals.

Let \((X,\mathcal{M},\mu)\) be any measure space; it need not be finite or sigma-finite, and it need not be complete. A real-valued measurable function \(u\) is integrable when \(\int |u|\,d\mu<\infty\). We use Fatou’s lemma in the following form: if \(u_n:X\to[0,\infty]\) are measurable, then \(\int\liminf_n u_n\,d\mu\le\liminf_n\int u_n\,d\mu\). This is the standard Fatou lemma established in the earlier material on the Lebesgue integral.

Theorem (Dominated Convergence): Let \(f_n:X\to\mathbb{R}\) be measurable and let \(g:X\to[0,\infty]\) be measurable and integrable on \((X,\mathcal{M},\mu)\). Suppose \(|f_n|\le g\) \(\mu\)-a.e. for every \(n\), and \(f_n\to f\) \(\mu\)-a.e. for a measurable real-valued function \(f\). Then \(f\) and every \(f_n\) are integrable, and \(\lim_{n\to\infty}\int f_n\,d\mu=\int f\,d\mu\).

The hypotheses are almost-everywhere statements, not necessarily pointwise statements everywhere. Since there are only countably many \(f_n\), we may take the union of the null sets on which domination fails, together with the null set on which convergence fails. This is still a measurable null set \(N\). Redefine every \(f_n\) and \(f\) to be zero on \(N\). These changes preserve measurability and integrals, and now the domination and convergence statements hold everywhere. We may therefore prove the theorem in this modified situation. Also, integrability of \(g\) implies \(g<\infty\) a.e., and \(|f|\le g\) follows by taking limits.

Proof of the Theorem

Proof. First, \(|f_n|\le g\) gives \(\int|f_n|\,d\mu\le\int g\,d\mu<\infty\), so every \(f_n\) is integrable. Taking the pointwise limit in \(|f_n|\le g\) gives \(|f|\le g\), so \(f\) is integrable as well. In particular, all signed integrals below are finite.

Because \(|f_n|\le g\), both \(g+f_n\) and \(g-f_n\) are nonnegative measurable functions. Their pointwise limits are \(g+f\) and \(g-f\), respectively. Applying Fatou’s lemma to \(g+f_n\) gives

$$ \int(g+f)\,d\mu \le \liminf_{n\to\infty}\int(g+f_n)\,d\mu =\int g\,d\mu+\liminf_{n\to\infty}\int f_n\,d\mu. $$

The equality uses linearity of the integral and the fact that \(\int g\) is a finite constant. Subtracting \(\int g\,d\mu\) yields \(\int f\,d\mu\le\liminf_n\int f_n\,d\mu\). Applying Fatou’s lemma instead to the nonnegative functions \(g-f_n\) gives

$$ \int(g-f)\,d\mu \le \liminf_{n\to\infty}\left(\int g\,d\mu-\int f_n\,d\mu\right) =\int g\,d\mu-\limsup_{n\to\infty}\int f_n\,d\mu. $$

Consequently, \(\limsup_n\int f_n\,d\mu\le\int f\,d\mu\). The sequence of integrals is bounded, since \(|\int f_n\,d\mu|\le\int g\,d\mu\). Its liminf is at least \(\int f\,d\mu\), and its limsup is at most \(\int f\,d\mu\); hence both equal \(\int f\,d\mu\), which proves convergence. More explicitly, equality of the liminf and limsup to this finite number means that for every \(\varepsilon>0\), all sufficiently large \(n\) satisfy \(\left|\int f_n\,d\mu-\int f\,d\mu\right|<\varepsilon\). \(\square\)

Corollary (Convergence in \(L^1\)): Under the hypotheses of the Dominated Convergence Theorem, \(\int|f_n-f|\,d\mu\to0\). Equivalently, \(\|f_n-f\|_1\to0\).

Proof. After the null-set modification described above, \(|f_n-f|\le|f_n|+|f|\le2g\) everywhere. Thus \(h_n=2g-|f_n-f|\) is nonnegative and measurable, and \(h_n\to2g\) pointwise because \(f_n\to f\). Fatou’s lemma gives

$$ 2\int g\,d\mu \le\liminf_{n\to\infty}\int h_n\,d\mu =2\int g\,d\mu-\limsup_{n\to\infty}\int|f_n-f|\,d\mu. $$

The last equality is valid because \(2\int g\) is finite and \(\int|f_n-f|\) is a bounded nonnegative sequence. It follows that the limsup of these nonnegative integrals is at most zero. Therefore they tend to zero: for every \(\varepsilon>0\), eventually \(0\le\int|f_n-f|\,d\mu<\varepsilon\). \(\square\)

For complex-valued measurable functions, the same convergence-of-integrals conclusion follows by applying the real theorem to the real and imaginary parts: \(|\operatorname{Re} f_n|\le g\), \(|\operatorname{Im} f_n|\le g\), and both parts converge a.e. The complex integral is defined by its real and imaginary parts. The \(L^1\) conclusion follows directly from the proof above, which uses only \(|f_n-f|\le|f_n|+|f|\).

Worked Applications

Worked Example: Powers on the Unit Interval

On \(([0,1],\mathcal{L},m)\), let \(f_n(x)=x^n\). For every \(x\in[0,1)\), \(x^n\to0\), while \(f_n(1)=1\). Thus \(f_n\to f\) a.e., where \(f=0\) a.e. The value at the single point \(1\) does not affect the Lebesgue integral. For every \(n\) and every \(x\in[0,1]\), \(0\le x^n\le1\), and the dominating function \(g(x)=1\) is integrable, with \(\int_0^1g\,dm=1\). The theorem applies.

Direct computation gives

$$ \int_0^1x^n\,dm=\left[\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\right]_0^1=\frac{1}{n+1}\longrightarrow0=\int_0^1f\,dm. $$

Check: substituting \(n=1,2,3\) gives \(1/2,1/3,1/4\), respectively; these values agree with \(1/(n+1)\) and tend to zero. The limiting integral is zero because \(f=0\) except on a null set.

Worked Example: Shrinking Indicators

On \(([0,1],\mathcal{L},m)\), set \(f_n=\chi_{[0,1/n]}\). At \(x=0\), every \(f_n(x)=1\). For each \(x>0\), there is an integer \(n_0\) with \(n_0>1/x\); for \(n\ge n_0\), \(1/n<x\), so \(f_n(x)=0\). Therefore \(f_n\to\chi_{\{0\}}\) pointwise, and this limit is zero a.e.

For every \(n\), \(0\le f_n\le1\), with the same integrable bound \(g=1\) as in the previous example. The measure of \([0,1/n]\) is \(1/n\), since including its endpoints does not change its Lebesgue measure. Hence

$$ \int_0^1 f_n\,dm=m([0,1/n])=\frac1n\longrightarrow0 =\int_0^1\chi_{\{0\}}\,dm. $$

Check: for \(n=2\), the interval has length \(1/2\) and the integral is \(1/2\); for \(n=4\), its length and integral are \(1/4\). These agree with \(1/n\). The result illustrates that the limit need not be zero at every point for the theorem to apply.

Worked Example: A Nonzero Limit Function

On \(([0,1],\mathcal{L},m)\), let \(f_n(x)=1+x/n\). For every \(x\in[0,1]\), \(f_n(x)\to1\), so \(f=1\). Also, for all \(n\ge1\), \(0\le f_n(x)\le2\); the constant function \(g=2\) is integrable and \(\int_0^1g\,dm=2\). Thus all hypotheses hold, including domination by one bound independent of \(n\).

For each \(n\), direct integration gives

$$ \int_0^1\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)\,dm =\left[x+\frac{x^2}{2n}\right]_0^1 =1+\frac{1}{2n} \longrightarrow1 =\int_0^1 1\,dm. $$

Check: when \(n=2\), the formula gives \(1+1/4=5/4\); when \(n=4\), it gives \(1+1/8=9/8\). Both approach \(1\). Independently, \(0\le f_n(x)-1=x/n\le1/n\) on the whole interval, so the integrals differ from \(1\) by at most \(1/n\), consistent with the exact computation.

Why the Integrable Bound Matters

Consider \(f_n=n\chi_{(0,1/n)}\) on \((\mathbb{R},\mathcal{L},m)\). For each fixed \(x>0\), \(f_n(x)=0\) once \(n>1/x\), and for \(x\le0\) it is always zero. Thus \(f_n\to0\) pointwise. Nevertheless,

$$ \int_{\mathbb{R}}f_n\,dm=n\,m((0,1/n))=n\cdot\frac1n=1 $$

for every \(n\), whereas the integral of the pointwise limit is zero. The missing condition is a common integrable dominating function. Indeed, if a measurable \(g\ge0\) dominated every \(f_n\) a.e., then for each integer \(k\ge1\), \(g\ge k\) a.e. on \((1/(k+1),1/k)\), because \(k\chi_{(0,1/k)}\) is among the functions in the sequence. These intervals are disjoint and have measure \(1/(k(k+1))\). Consequently, for each \(K\ge1\),

$$ \int_{\mathbb{R}}g\,dm \ge\sum_{k=1}^{K}\frac{k}{k(k+1)} =\sum_{k=1}^{K}\frac1{k+1}. $$

The right side is unbounded as \(K\to\infty\), so no such \(g\) can be integrable. This pinpoints the gap: pointwise convergence describes the values at each fixed point, but without an integrable bound it does not control the total integral uniformly.

Check Your Understanding

For each question, identify the measure space, the a.e. limit, and whether a single integrable dominating function is available.

  1. On \([0,1]\) with Lebesgue measure, let \(f_n(x)=x^{2n}\). Find the pointwise limit and compute \(\lim_n\int_0^1f_n\,dm\).
  2. For the shrinking indicators \(\chi_{[0,1/n]}\), why does the value of the limit at \(x=0\) not change its integral?
  3. Apply Fatou’s lemma to \(g+f_n\) and \(g-f_n\). Which inequality for the liminf and which for the limsup of the integrals do you obtain?
  4. Under the Dominated Convergence Theorem hypotheses, what additional convergence follows for \(\|f_n-f\|_1\)?
  5. For \(n\chi_{(0,1/n)}\), compute each integral and explain why pointwise convergence to zero does not contradict the theorem.