The Pairing That Defines Weak-Star Convergence
In a dual space, weak-star convergence is determined by testing against elements of the predual. For \(L^\infty\), the relevant tests are integrable functions: a sequence can oscillate without settling pointwise or in norm, while its integral against each fixed \(L^1\) function tends to zero. The key is to distinguish these tests from all bounded linear functionals on \(L^\infty\), which define the ordinary weak topology.
We work with real-valued functions and the measure space \(([0,1],\mathcal{L},m)\), where \(m\) is Lebesgue measure. This space is finite, hence sigma-finite and complete. As usual, \(L^1(m)\) and \(L^\infty(m)\) consist of equivalence classes modulo equality \(m\)-almost everywhere; their norms are \(\|g\|_1=\int_0^1|g|\,dm\) and \(\|f\|_\infty=\operatorname*{ess\,sup}_{x\in[0,1]}|f(x)|\). The integral pairing is \(\langle f,g\rangle=\int_0^1fg\,dm\). It is well-defined and satisfies \(|\langle f,g\rangle|\le\|f\|_\infty\|g\|_1\).
The standard duality theorem, under the sigma-finiteness hypothesis, identifies the continuous dual of \(L^1(m)\) isometrically with \(L^\infty(m)\) by this pairing. The sigma-finiteness qualification matters: on an arbitrary measure space, \(L^\infty\) need not identify with \((L^1)^*\) through the integral pairing. Here the hypothesis holds, so \(L^\infty(m)\) is the dual of \(L^1(m)\).
The ordinary weak topology on \(L^\infty(m)\), denoted \(\sigma(L^\infty(m),(L^\infty(m))^*)\), tests against every bounded linear functional on \(L^\infty(m)\). Each \(g\in L^1(m)\) gives one such functional by integration, but these are not all the functionals in \((L^\infty(m))^*\). Consequently, weak convergence implies weak-star convergence, while the converse need not hold.
Testing Convergence by Integrals
Proof. By the definition of the topology, each map \(T_g(f)=\int fg\,dm\) is continuous. Thus convergence in the topology implies \(T_g(f_n)\to T_g(f)\) for every \(g\in L^1(m)\). Conversely, basic neighborhoods of \(f\) in this topology are finite intersections of sets of the form \(\{h:|T_{g_j}(h)-T_{g_j}(f)|<\varepsilon\}\), where \(g_1,\dots,g_k\in L^1(m)\) and \(\varepsilon>0\). If all the scalar integrals converge, then for this finite list each difference is less than \(\varepsilon\) for all sufficiently large \(n\); taking the largest of the finitely many required indices puts \(f_n\) in the neighborhood. This is convergence in the topology. \(\square\)
Worked Example: Testing Against One Dyadic Interval
For \(n\ge1\), define \(r_n(x)=(-1)^{\lfloor 2^n x\rfloor}\) for \(0\le x<1\), and assign any value at \(x=1\), which is a null set. Take the test function \(g=\chi_{[0,1/2)}\). For each \(n\ge2\), the interval \([0,1/2)\) contains \(2^{n-1}\) consecutive intervals of length \(2^{-n}\); the signs of \(r_n\) alternate on them. Since \(2^{n-1}\) is even for \(n\ge2\), there are equally many positive and negative intervals, each of measure \(2^{-n}\). Therefore
For \(n=1\), \(r_1=1\) on \([0,1/2)\), so \(\int r_1g\,dm=1/2\). Thus this particular test integral is eventually zero. This calculation alone does not establish weak-star convergence: the definition requires convergence for every \(L^1\) test function.
A Sequence Converging Weak-Star to Zero
We now verify all the required tests for the same sequence. A dyadic step function of level \(m\) is a function constant on each interval \([j2^{-m},(j+1)2^{-m})\), for \(j=0,\dots,2^m-1\). If \(n>m\), then on each level-\(m\) interval, \(r_n\) has equally many positive and negative subintervals of length \(2^{-n}\). Hence its integral over that interval is zero.
Proof. Simple functions are dense in \(L^1(m)\): for any \(g\in L^1(m)\) and any \(\varepsilon>0\), there is a simple function \(s=\sum_{j=1}^k a_j\chi_{E_j}\) with \(\|g-s\|_1<\varepsilon/2\). By regularity of Lebesgue measure on \([0,1]\), each measurable \(E_j\) can be approximated in measure by a finite union \(A_j\) of intervals. Choose these approximations so that \(\sum_{j=1}^k|a_j|m(E_j\triangle A_j)<\varepsilon/4\). The endpoints of the finitely many intervals can then be approximated by dyadic rationals, producing finite unions \(D_j\) of dyadic intervals for which \(\sum_{j=1}^k|a_j|m(A_j\triangle D_j)<\varepsilon/4\). A common sufficiently fine dyadic partition makes every \(D_j\) a union of cells of that partition. The corresponding dyadic step function \(h=\sum_{j=1}^k a_j\chi_{D_j}\) satisfies \(\|s-h\|_1\le\sum_j|a_j|m(E_j\triangle D_j)<\varepsilon/2\). The triangle inequality gives \(\|g-h\|_1<\varepsilon\), proving density. \(\square\)
Proof. Fix \(g\in L^1(m)\) and \(\varepsilon>0\). By the lemma, choose a dyadic step function \(h\) with \(\|g-h\|_1<\varepsilon\). Let its level be \(m\). For every \(n>m\), the integral of \(r_n\) over each level-\(m\) cell is zero; since \(h\) is constant on each such cell, \(\int_0^1r_nh\,dm=0\). Also \(|r_n|=1\) almost everywhere, so
For this fixed \(g\), the estimate holds for every \(n>m\). As \(\varepsilon\) was arbitrary, \(\int r_ng\,dm\to0\). It holds for every \(g\in L^1(m)\), so the convergence criterion proves \(r_n\to0\) weak-star. \(\square\)
Worked Example: Three Checks on the Oscillating Sequence
First, its test against \(g=1\) is zero for every \(n\ge1\): the \(2^n\) intervals of length \(2^{-n}\) have alternating signs, with \(2^{n-1}\) of each sign, so \(\int r_n\,dm=2^{n-1}2^{-n}-2^{n-1}2^{-n}=0\). Second, for any dyadic step function \(h\) of level \(m\), the cancellation calculation gives \(\int r_nh\,dm=0\) for every \(n>m\). Third, for a general \(g\in L^1(m)\), choose \(h\) with \(\|g-h\|_1<\varepsilon\); for all \(n>m\), \(|\int r_ng\,dm|=|\int r_n(g-h)\,dm|\le\|g-h\|_1<\varepsilon\). The last estimate, not just the first two special tests, establishes convergence against every \(L^1\) function.
As a separate check, \(\|r_n\|_\infty=1\) for every \(n\), since \(|r_n|=1\) almost everywhere. Thus this weak-star convergence is not convergence in \(L^\infty\)-norm: \(\|r_n-0\|_\infty=1\), not a quantity tending to zero.
Why the Same Sequence Is Not Weakly Convergent
To show that weak-star convergence is genuinely weaker here, we construct a bounded linear functional on \(L^\infty(m)\) that detects the sequence. For every finite linear combination of the \(r_n\), the signs of the first \(N\) functions take all \(2^N\) possible sign patterns on the level-\(N\) dyadic intervals. Therefore, for real coefficients \(a_1,\dots,a_N\),
Indeed, the triangle inequality gives the upper bound. For the reverse bound, choose a sign pattern with the sign of \(a_k\) in coordinate \(k\) whenever \(a_k\ne0\); the corresponding dyadic interval has positive measure, and on it the sum equals \(\sum_k|a_k|\).
Worked Example: A Weak Functional That Detects Every Term
On the linear span of the functions \(r_n\), define \(F_0(\sum_{k=1}^N a_kr_k)=\sum_{k=1}^N a_k\). The displayed norm identity shows that this is well-defined and bounded: \(|F_0(\sum a_kr_k)|\le\sum|a_k|=\|\sum a_kr_k\|_\infty\). Also \(\|F_0\|=1\), since \(F_0(r_1)=1=\|r_1\|_\infty\). The Hahn–Banach theorem extends \(F_0\) to a bounded linear functional \(F\) on all of \(L^\infty(m)\) with the same norm. For every \(n\), \(F(r_n)=F_0(r_n)=1\), whereas \(F(0)=0\). Consequently, \(F(r_n)\) does not tend to \(F(0)\), so \(r_n\) does not converge weakly to zero.
In fact, it cannot converge weakly to any other function \(f\). Weak convergence to \(f\) would imply weak-star convergence to \(f\), because each \(g\in L^1(m)\) defines a bounded functional \(u\mapsto\int ug\,dm\) on \(L^\infty(m)\). The sequence already converges weak-star to zero, so uniqueness of limits of the scalar integrals gives \(\int fg\,dm=0\) for every \(g\in L^1(m)\). Taking \(g=\operatorname{sgn}(f)\), which belongs to \(L^1(m)\) because \(m([0,1])=1\), yields \(\int|f|\,dm=0\), hence \(f=0\) almost everywhere. The functional \(F\) rules out weak convergence to zero. Therefore the sequence has no weak limit.
A Common Misidentification
A common mistake is to treat weak-star convergence in \(L^\infty\) as though it tested against every element of \((L^\infty)^*\). That is the definition of weak convergence, not weak-star convergence. The distinction matters precisely because the dual of \(L^\infty\) can contain functionals not represented by integration against \(L^1\) functions. In the example, every \(L^1\) test integral tends to zero, while the Hahn–Banach extension \(F\) has \(F(r_n)=1\) for every \(n\).
Another important qualification is the measure-space hypothesis behind the duality notation. On a sigma-finite measure space, the integral pairing identifies \((L^1(\mu))^*\) with \(L^\infty(\mu)\). Without sigma-finiteness this identification may fail, so one should not assert it for an arbitrary measure space. Regardless of that issue, the convergence test stated here is on the specified finite, complete Lebesgue space \(([0,1],\mathcal{L},m)\), where the duality theorem applies.
Check Your Understanding
Use the integral-testing definition carefully; distinguish the \(L^1\) tests from all bounded linear functionals on \(L^\infty\).
- Why does \(\int r_ng\,dm\to0\) for every dyadic step function \(g\), by itself, not yet prove weak-star convergence?
- For a dyadic step function \(h\) of level \(m\), explain why \(\int r_nh\,dm=0\) whenever \(n>m\).
- Which inequality controls \(\left|\int r_n(g-h)\,dm\right|\), and why does it hold uniformly in \(n\)?
- Explain why \(F_0(\sum_{k=1}^N a_kr_k)=\sum_{k=1}^N a_k\) is bounded on the finite linear span of the \(r_k\).
- State the measure-space hypothesis under which the usual integral pairing identifies \((L^1(\mu))^*\) with \(L^\infty(\mu)\).