From Branch Probabilities to Risk-Neutral Pricing
In a binomial model, a stock has only two possible values at the next step. This makes the risk-neutral probability a direct solution of one linear equation: choose the branch weights so that the discounted stock price has the martingale property. The resulting probabilities are not generally the probabilities observed under the physical measure \(\mathbb{P}\). They are probabilities under a pricing measure \(\mathbb{Q}\), and they are useful only when they are positive and sum to one.
Work on a finite filtered probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},(\mathcal{F}_n)_{n=0}^N,\mathbb{P})\), where \(\mathcal{F}_n\) records the market history through date \(n\). Suppose the bank account grows by a constant gross factor \(R>0\) each period, so its value at date \(n\) is \(R^n\). At a node where the stock price is \(S>0\), the next stock price is either \(Su\) or \(Sd\), with \(u>d>0\). A one-period portfolio holding \(\Delta\) shares and \(b\) units of the bank account costs \(\Delta S+b\) at the node and is worth \(\Delta S_{\text{next}}+Rb\) at the next date.
The martingale equation is \(qSu+(1-q)Sd=RS\). Since \(S>0\) and \(u\ne d\), it has the unique algebraic solution \(q=(R-d)/(u-d)\). It gives a valid equivalent probability precisely when \(d<R<u\). If either inequality fails, the algebraic value is not strictly between zero and one, so it cannot be the probability of an equivalent measure. At \(R=d\) or \(R=u\), one branch receives probability zero; that is not equivalent to a physical measure assigning positive probability to both branches.
One-Step Pricing and Replication
Proof. The martingale equation has the unique solution \(q=(R-d)/(u-d)\), and \(d<R<u\) implies \(0<q<1\). The two replication equations are \(\Delta Su+Rb=X_u\) and \(\Delta Sd+Rb=X_d\). Subtracting them gives \(\Delta=(X_u-X_d)/(S(u-d))\); substituting into the down equation gives \(b=(uX_d-dX_u)/(R(u-d))\). These values solve both equations, and the same subtraction and substitution show that no other holdings can solve them. Their initial cost is $$ \Delta S+b =\frac{(R-d)X_u+(u-R)X_d}{R(u-d)} =\frac{qX_u+(1-q)X_d}{R}, $$ because \(1-q=(u-R)/(u-d)\). Thus the replicating cost equals the discounted risk-neutral expectation. \(\square\)
Worked Example: Correcting a One-Step Call Replication
At a node, let the stock price be \(120\), with next prices \(144\) and \(96\). Take \(u=6/5\), \(d=4/5\), and \(R=11/10\). A call with strike \(100\) pays \(44\) up and \(0\) down. Find its risk-neutral price and replication.
The up probability is $$ q=\frac{11/10-4/5}{6/5-4/5} =\frac{3/10}{2/5} =\frac34, $$ so the down probability is \(1/4\). Both are positive and sum to one. The discounted risk-neutral price is $$ V=\frac{(3/4)44+(1/4)0}{11/10} =\frac{33}{11/10}=30. $$ For replication, \(\Delta=(44-0)/(144-96)=44/48=11/12\). The down-state equation \((11/12)96+(11/10)b=0\) gives \(88+(11/10)b=0\), hence \(b=-80\). The initial cost is \((11/12)120-80=110-80=30\).
Check: At the next date the bank-account holding is worth \(Rb=(11/10)(-80)=-88\), not \(-80\). The portfolio values are \((11/12)144-88=132-88=44\) up and \((11/12)96-88=88-88=0\) down, exactly the call payoffs. The risk-neutral value and the initial replication cost both equal \(30\).
The bank-account growth factor matters whenever a holding is carried to a later date: \(b\) is its current value, while \(Rb\) is its next-period value. Risk-neutral probabilities, by contrast, are determined by the discounted-stock martingale equation and do not depend on a particular claim's payoff.
Worked Example: A One-Step Put
Let \(S=50\), \(u=6/5\), \(d=4/5\), and \(R=11/10\). A put with strike \(50\) pays \(0\) if the stock rises to \(60\) and \(10\) if it falls to \(40\). Compute its price and replicating holdings.
As above, \(q=3/4\) and \(1-q=1/4\). Thus $$ V=\frac{(3/4)0+(1/4)10}{11/10} =\frac{5/2}{11/10} =\frac{25}{11}. $$ The stock holding is \(\Delta=(0-10)/(60-40)=-1/2\). In the down state the stock position is worth \((-1/2)40=-20\), so \(-20+(11/10)b=10\) and \(b=300/11\). The initial cost is $$ -\frac12(50)+\frac{300}{11} =-25+\frac{300}{11} =\frac{25}{11}. $$
Check: At the next date the bank holding is worth \((11/10)(300/11)=30\). The up payoff from the portfolio is \((-1/2)60+30=0\); the down payoff is \((-1/2)40+30=10\). The portfolio matches both put payoffs, and its cost equals the risk-neutral price.
Extending the Calculation Through a Tree
Now suppose there are \(N\) periods, the same \(u,d,R\) apply at each node, and \(d<R<u\). At each step the risk-neutral up probability is \(q=(R-d)/(u-d)\), and the down probability is \(1-q\). Assume the physical probability of each branch is strictly between zero and one at every node. Assigning these risk-neutral branch probabilities successively defines a measure \(\mathbb{Q}\) on the finite set of paths. Every path then has positive probability under both \(\mathbb{P}\) and \(\mathbb{Q}\), so the two measures are equivalent.
For a terminal claim \(H\), define \(V_N=H\). At a node at date \(n\), write \(V_{n+1}^{u}\) and \(V_{n+1}^{d}\) for the values at its up and down successor nodes. The value at the node is calculated by backward induction: take the conditional risk-neutral expectation of the next value and discount one period. This is a finite sum, so all the conditional expectations below are integrable.
Proof. At any node, the proposed holdings have next-period values $$ \Delta_n S_nu+Rb_n =\frac{u(V_{n+1}^{u}-V_{n+1}^{d})+uV_{n+1}^{d}-dV_{n+1}^{u}}{u-d} =V_{n+1}^{u}, $$ and $$ \Delta_n S_nd+Rb_n =\frac{d(V_{n+1}^{u}-V_{n+1}^{d})+uV_{n+1}^{d}-dV_{n+1}^{u}}{u-d} =V_{n+1}^{d}. $$ Their current cost is $$ \Delta_n S_n+b_n =\frac{(R-d)V_{n+1}^{u}+(u-R)V_{n+1}^{d}}{R(u-d)} =\frac{qV_{n+1}^{u}+(1-q)V_{n+1}^{d}}{R} =V_n. $$ Thus the holdings at each node cost exactly the value required there and produce the recursively specified successor values. Starting at date \(0\), choose these holdings and rebalance at each successor node. The portfolio value equals \(V_n\) at each date by the displayed equations, and at \(N\) it equals \(H\). Rebalancing costs no additional cash because the value of the portfolio before and after choosing the prescribed holdings at a node is \(V_n\). This constructs the claimed self-financing replication. \(\square\)
Worked Example: A Two-Period Call
Take \(S_0=100\), \(u=3/2\), \(d=2/3\), and \(R=1\). Price a two-period European call with strike \(100\), and verify it by backward replication.
The risk-neutral probability is $$ q=\frac{1-2/3}{3/2-2/3} =\frac{1/3}{5/6} =\frac25, $$ so the down probability is \(3/5\). The terminal stock values are \(225\) on the up-up path, \(100\) on either mixed path, and \(400/9\) on the down-down path. The corresponding call payoffs are \(125,0,0,0\). The risk-neutral probabilities of these paths are \(4/25,6/25,6/25,9/25\), respectively. Since \(R=1\), the discounted expectation is $$ V_0=125\frac4{25}+0\frac6{25}+0\frac6{25}+0\frac9{25}=20. $$
For backward replication, at the date-1 up node the stock is \(150\). Its next values are \(225\) and \(100\), with call payoffs \(125\) and \(0\). Therefore \(\Delta_1=(125-0)/(225-100)=1\), and the down-state equation \(100+b=0\) gives \(b=-100\). The value at this up node is \(150-100=50\). At the date-1 down node the stock is \(200/3\); its next stock values are \(100\) and \(400/9\), both no greater than the strike, so both payoffs are zero. The holdings there are \(\Delta_1=0\), \(b=0\), and the node value is zero.
At date \(0\), the two continuation values are \(50\) and \(0\), at stock prices \(150\) and \(200/3\). Hence $$ \Delta_0=\frac{50-0}{150-200/3} =\frac{50}{250/3} =\frac35,\qquad b_0=0-\frac35\frac{200}{3}=-40. $$ The initial cost is \((3/5)100-40=60-40=20\).
Check: The date-0 portfolio is worth \((3/5)150-40=50\) at the up node and \((3/5)(200/3)-40=40-40=0\) at the down node, exactly the continuation values used in the calculation. At the up node, the rebalanced holdings give \(225-100=125\) in the up state and \(100-100=0\) in the down state. At the down node, zero holdings give zero in both states. These are all four terminal payoffs.
Martingale Check and a Common Pitfall
At every node, the conditional expectation of the next discounted stock is $$ \mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{Q}}\left[\frac{S_{n+1}}{R^{n+1}}\middle|\mathcal{F}_n\right] =\frac{S_n(qu+(1-q)d)}{R^{n+1}} =\frac{S_n}{R^n}, $$ because \(qu+(1-q)d=R\). This verifies the martingale property: on the finite tree the discounted stock is integrable, and its conditional expectation at each date equals its current value. The same finite-tree argument applies to the discounted value process \(V_n/R^n\): the backward recursion gives \(\mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{Q}}[V_{n+1}/R^{n+1}\mid\mathcal{F}_n]=V_n/R^n\).
A common error is to use a physical up probability \(p\) in the pricing expectation without checking the martingale condition. In general \(p\) need not satisfy \(pu+(1-p)d=R\), so discounting the physical expectation does not produce the replicating cost. Another frequent error is to carry a bank-account position forward as \(b\) rather than \(Rb\). The first worked example shows why: using \(-80\) instead of \(-88\) as the next-period bank contribution would incorrectly give terminal values \(52\) and \(8\), not \(44\) and \(0\). The stock holding \(\Delta=11/12\) is correct; the error is omitting bank-account growth.
| Quantity | Meaning | One-period expression |
|---|---|---|
| \(p\) | Physical up probability under \(\mathbb{P}\) | Given by the physical model |
| \(q\) | Risk-neutral up probability under \(\mathbb{Q}\) | \((R-d)/(u-d)\) |
| \(V\) | Claim value at the current node | \((qX_u+(1-q)X_d)/R\) |
| \(Rb\) | Next-period value of a current bank holding \(b\) | Bank holding after one period |
Check Your Understanding
Use the martingale equation and the replication equations to justify your answers.
- For \(u=5/4\), \(d=3/4\), and \(R=1\), find \(q\). Are both risk-neutral branch probabilities strictly positive?
- For \(S=80\), \(u=6/5\), \(d=4/5\), \(R=1\), and payoffs \(X_u=24\), \(X_d=0\), compute the price and the replicating holdings.
- Explain why a probability \(q=0\) cannot define a measure equivalent to a physical measure that assigns positive probability to both branches.
- In the two-period call example, compute the risk-neutral conditional expectation of the date-1 continuation value at date zero.
- State the next-period value of a bank holding \(b=-50\) when the gross return is \(R=6/5\).