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Weak Instruments and Identification · Tutorial 194 of 952

Anderson-Rubin Tests Under Weak Identification

Learn how the Anderson–Rubin test checks a structural coefficient without relying on a strong first stage.

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What You'll Learn

  • Express the null structural coefficient as a restriction on reduced-form coefficients.
  • Construct the Anderson–Rubin statistic from nested regressions.
  • State the conditions for its exact finite-sample F reference distribution.
  • Calculate and interpret Anderson–Rubin tests in single- and multiple-instrument examples.
  • Explain why weak first stages do not invalidate the test and can still limit its power.

Why Test a Structural Coefficient This Way?

In instrumental-variables regression, a conventional test of a structural coefficient can behave poorly when the instruments only weakly predict the endogenous regressor. The Anderson–Rubin (AR) test takes a different route: for a proposed coefficient value, it asks whether the outcome remaining after subtracting that proposed effect is related to the excluded instruments. It does not estimate the structural coefficient by dividing one noisy instrument-related quantity by another.

This construction makes the test useful when first-stage strength is uncertain. Its validity does not require the first-stage coefficient to be large or even nonzero. The test can nevertheless have limited power when the instruments provide little information, so a non-rejection is not evidence that the proposed coefficient has been established.

Model and Hypothesis

For observations \(i=1,\ldots,n\), consider one endogenous regressor \(x_i\), an outcome \(y_i\), a vector of included exogenous controls \(W_i\), and a vector of \(q\) excluded instruments \(Z_i\). Write the structural equation as

$$ y_i=\beta x_i+W_i'\gamma+u_i, $$

where \(\beta\) is the structural coefficient of interest, \(\gamma\) is a vector of control coefficients, and \(u_i\) is the structural disturbance. The instruments are excluded from this structural equation: conditional on \(x_i\) and \(W_i\), they have no separate effect on \(y_i\). For the instruments to support valid inference, they must also be exogenous with respect to the structural disturbance, conditional on the controls.

A convenient first-stage representation is

$$ x_i=W_i'\delta+Z_i'\pi+v_i, $$

where \(\pi\) describes the instruments’ predictive relationship with \(x_i\), and \(v_i\) is the first-stage disturbance. The test concerns \(H_0:\beta=\beta_0\), for a specified value \(\beta_0\). The vector \(\gamma\) remains unrestricted under the null.

Definition: The Anderson–Rubin test of \(H_0:\beta=\beta_0\) regresses the transformed outcome \(y_i-\beta_0x_i\) on the controls \(W_i\) and excluded instruments \(Z_i\), then tests whether the coefficients on all \(q\) excluded instruments are zero.

Why the Null Becomes a Test of Instrument Coefficients

Under \(H_0\), subtracting \(\beta_0x_i\) from both sides of the structural equation gives

$$ y_i-\beta_0x_i=W_i'\gamma+u_i. $$

Thus, under the null, the transformed outcome is explained by the included controls and has no additional relationship with the excluded instruments. This is the central AR restriction. In particular, the disturbance in this transformed regression under the null is \(u_i\), not \(u_i-\beta_0v_i\). The first-stage disturbance does not enter the null regression because the hypothesized structural effect has been subtracted from the outcome.

The same restriction can be seen through reduced-form regressions. Regress \(y_i\) and \(x_i\) separately on the same set of controls and instruments. Let \(\rho\) denote the vector of excluded-instrument coefficients in the outcome regression and \(\pi\) the corresponding vector in the regressor regression. Ordinary least squares is linear in the dependent variable when the regressors are held fixed. Therefore the excluded-instrument coefficient vector in the regression of \(y_i-\beta_0x_i\) is

$$ \widehat{\rho}-\beta_0\widehat{\pi}. $$

The AR test is equivalently a test that this vector equals zero. At the population level, under instrument exogeneity and the structural model, the corresponding reduced-form coefficients satisfy \(\rho=\beta\pi\). Consequently, under \(H_0\), \(\rho=\beta_0\pi\). Unlike a ratio-based estimate, this equality remains a well-defined restriction when \(\pi\) is zero or close to zero.

The Conventional AR F Statistic

Let \(k\) be the rank of the control matrix \(W\), including an intercept if one is used. Assume the full regressor matrix formed by \(W\) and \(Z\) has rank \(k+q\), with \(n>k+q\). Fit two ordinary least-squares regressions of the transformed outcome \(y-\beta_0x\): a restricted regression on \(W\) alone and an unrestricted regression on \(W\) and \(Z\). Denote their residual sums of squares by \(RSS_R\) and \(RSS_U\), respectively. The AR statistic is

$$ F_{\mathrm{AR}}(\beta_0) = \frac{(RSS_R-RSS_U)/q}{RSS_U/(n-k-q)}. $$

The numerator measures the reduction in residual variation from adding the \(q\) excluded instruments, per restriction. The denominator is the unrestricted regression’s residual variance estimate, with \(n-k-q\) residual degrees of freedom. Because the unrestricted regression includes every regressor in the restricted regression, \(RSS_R-RSS_U\) cannot be negative, apart from numerical rounding.

For an exact finite-sample \(F\) reference distribution under the null, impose the following conditional error assumptions: given \(W\) and \(Z\), the observations \(u_i\) are independent, normally distributed, have conditional mean zero, and have a common conditional variance \(\sigma^2\). Under these conditions, the null regression is \(y-\beta_0x=W\gamma+u\), and

$$ F_{\mathrm{AR}}(\beta_0)\mid W,Z\sim F_{q,n-k-q}. $$

These assumptions concern \(u\), the structural disturbance in the null regression. No normality or independence assumption on \(v_i\) is needed for this exact null reference distribution: \(x_i\) cancels from the null equation. Instrument exogeneity and exclusion are also essential to the IV interpretation of the test. The exact \(F\) claim, however, specifically uses the stated conditional distributional assumptions on \(u\).

Justification of the F Reference Distribution

The exact result follows from the nested-regression geometry. Conditional on \(W,Z\), let \(P_W\) be the projection matrix onto the columns of \(W\), and \(P_{WZ}\) the projection matrix onto the columns of the full regressor matrix \([W,Z]\). Under the null, the transformed outcome is \(W\gamma+u\). Since both regressions include \(W\), their residual sums of squares can be written using \(u\):

$$ RSS_R=u'(I-P_W)u,\qquad RSS_U=u'(I-P_{WZ})u. $$

Subtracting these expressions gives

$$ RSS_R-RSS_U=u'(P_{WZ}-P_W)u. $$

The matrix \(P_{WZ}-P_W\) projects onto the \(q\)-dimensional part of the full regressor space that is added by \(Z\). Conditional normality and the common variance therefore give \((RSS_R-RSS_U)/\sigma^2\sim\chi^2_q\). The unrestricted residual projection has rank \(n-k-q\), so \(RSS_U/\sigma^2\sim\chi^2_{n-k-q}\). These projections are orthogonal; under conditional normality their quadratic forms are independent. Dividing each chi-square quantity by its degrees of freedom yields the stated \(F_{q,n-k-q}\) distribution. This argument also shows why the null disturbance used in the derivation must be \(u\).

Worked Example: Testing with Two Excluded Instruments

Suppose a hypothetical analysis has \(n=50\) observations, \(k=2\) control columns, and \(q=2\) excluded instruments. For a proposed structural coefficient \(\beta_0=1.5\), the regression of \(y-1.5x\) on the controls alone has \(RSS_R=150\). Adding both instruments gives \(RSS_U=130\). Assume the instruments are valid for the structural model and the conditional normal, independent, common-variance assumptions on \(u\) hold.

The numerator degrees of freedom are \(q=2\), and the residual degrees of freedom are \(50-2-2=46\). Substitution gives

$$ F_{\mathrm{AR}}(1.5) = \frac{(150-130)/2}{130/46} = \frac{10}{2.8261} \approx 3.538. $$

Using an \(F_{2,46}\) reference distribution gives a p-value of approximately \(0.037\). At significance level \(\alpha=0.05\), reject \(H_0:\beta=1.5\). In context, the transformed outcome has a statistically detectable relationship with the excluded instruments after controlling for the included covariates, which is inconsistent with this proposed structural coefficient under the model and assumptions. The test does not establish that any particular alternative value is correct.

Worked Examples Through Reduced-Form Coefficients

Worked Example: One Instrument and the Reduced-Form Restriction

In a hypothetical study, the control-adjusted coefficient on one instrument is estimated as \(0.54\) in the outcome regression and \(0.36\) in the regression for \(x\). The proposed structural coefficient is \(\beta_0=1.25\). Suppose \(n=60\) and \(k=2\), and the AR regression of \(y-1.25x\) on the controls and instrument reports an instrument coefficient of \(0.090\), with conventional standard error \(0.041\). Assume the same regressor set is used in all three regressions, the instrument is valid, and the stated exact-error assumptions hold.

First check the reduced-form restriction:

$$ \widehat{\rho}-\beta_0\widehat{\pi} = 0.54-(1.25)(0.36) = 0.54-0.45 = 0.090. $$

This matches the instrument coefficient in the transformed-outcome regression. With one instrument, the AR test is a two-sided \(t\)-test of that coefficient. Its statistic is

$$ t=\frac{0.090}{0.041}\approx 2.195,\qquad F_{\mathrm{AR}}=t^2\approx 4.818. $$

The residual degrees of freedom are \(60-2-1=57\), so the two-sided \(t_{57}\) p-value (equivalently, the \(F_{1,57}\) p-value) is approximately \(0.032\). At the 5% level, reject \(\beta=1.25\). The calculation tests whether the reduced-form outcome coefficient equals \(1.25\) times the first-stage coefficient; it does not treat the first-stage estimate as known.

Worked Example: A Weak First Stage Does Not Break the Test

Consider another hypothetical analysis with \(n=80\), \(k=2\), and one excluded instrument. The estimated instrument coefficient is \(0.014\) in the outcome regression and \(0.006\) in the first-stage regression. Test \(\beta_0=2.0\). The AR regression reports an instrument coefficient of \(0.002\) and standard error \(0.010\). The first-stage estimate is \(0.006\), but its magnitude alone does not establish first-stage strength; without its standard error or another relevant strength measure, the instrument's informativeness cannot be assessed. Assume the instrument is valid and the conditional error assumptions for the conventional test hold.

The reduced-form restriction gives the same transformed-outcome coefficient:

$$ \widehat{\rho}-\beta_0\widehat{\pi} = 0.014-(2.0)(0.006) = 0.002. $$

With one instrument, \(t=0.002/0.010=0.200\), so \(F_{\mathrm{AR}}=0.200^2=0.0400\), with \(80-2-1=77\) residual degrees of freedom. The two-sided p-value is approximately \(0.842\). At \(\alpha=0.05\), do not reject \(\beta=2.0\). This result does not confirm the proposed value: it says the data provide little evidence against it by this test. Crucially, the statistic was computed without dividing by the first-stage estimate.

Interpretation, Power, and a Common Pitfall

For each candidate \(\beta_0\), the AR test asks whether the excluded instruments jointly explain the transformed outcome after the controls are included. A small p-value is evidence against that candidate under the maintained structural and instrument-validity assumptions. A large p-value does not give the probability that \(H_0\) is true and is not proof that the instruments are informative. When the first stage is weak, the test can be valid yet have low power: many candidate values may not be rejected. Inverting the test over candidate values can therefore produce a wide or unbounded confidence set.

Common mistake: A tempting but incorrect argument is that the null-regression error is \(u_i-\beta_0v_i\), so assumptions about that combination justify the usual AR \(F\) distribution. This substitutes the wrong disturbance. Under \(H_0:\beta=\beta_0\), direct subtraction gives \(y_i-\beta_0x_i=W_i'\gamma+u_i\); the null-regression disturbance is \(u_i\). The exact \(F\) result therefore requires the specified conditional assumptions on \(u_i\), not merely on \(u_i-\beta_0v_i\).

A second pitfall is to confuse the AR test with a test based on a 2SLS estimate divided by its standard error. The AR test instead evaluates a restriction on reduced-form coefficients, \(\rho=\beta_0\pi\), through a regression of \(y-\beta_0x\). This distinction is precisely why its null calibration does not rely on a strong first stage. Its usefulness still depends on credible instrument exclusion and exogeneity; weak-instrument robustness does not protect against invalid instruments.

Key takeaway: To test \(\beta=\beta_0\), regress \(y-\beta_0x\) on \(W\) and \(Z\), then test that the \(q\) instrument coefficients are jointly zero. Under the stated conditional assumptions on the structural disturbance \(u\), the conventional statistic has an exact \(F_{q,n-k-q}\) distribution, regardless of first-stage strength.

Check Your Understanding

Answer each question by referring to the model, restriction, or reference distribution described above.

  1. Under \(H_0:\beta=\beta_0\), what is the disturbance in the regression of \(y-\beta_0x\) on \(W\) and \(Z\)?
  2. For \(n=100\), \(k=3\), and \(q=2\), what are the numerator and denominator degrees of freedom for the conventional AR \(F\) statistic?
  3. Why does the AR test remain defined when the first-stage coefficient is zero?
  4. With one excluded instrument, how is the AR \(F\) statistic related to the \(t\) statistic for the instrument coefficient in the transformed-outcome regression?
  5. What does a large AR p-value mean, and why does it not establish that the proposed structural coefficient is correct?
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