Why Case-Control Analysis Invites Particular Errors
Case-control sampling deliberately selects people according to their outcome: cases are sampled from those with the outcome, and controls from those without it. This can make comparisons between cases and controls informative, but it also means that the sample is not generally a miniature version of the population. The central discipline is to ask, for each quantity, which population and which sampling mechanism does it describe?
Let \(Y=1\) denote the outcome and \(Y=0\) its absence, let \(X\) denote covariates, and let \(S=1\) indicate inclusion in the analyzed sample. Write \(p(x)=P(Y=1\mid X=x)\) for population risk and \(q(x)=P(Y=1\mid X=x,S=1)\) for the outcome probability among sampled people. These are different probabilities unless the sampling mechanism happens to make them equal.
Error 1: Treating the Sample Case Fraction as Prevalence
In many case-control studies, investigators choose how many cases and controls to recruit. If they recruit the same number of each, the case fraction is one half by design—even if the outcome occurs in only one person in a hundred in the population. The sample case fraction can be useful for describing the recruited data, but it does not reveal how common the outcome is in the target population.
The difference can be expressed using outcome-specific sampling probabilities. Suppose a person with \(Y=y\) is sampled with probability \(s_y=P(S=1\mid Y=y)\), and selection within each outcome group does not depend on other variables. The sample case fraction depends on both the population prevalence and these two sampling probabilities.
To verify the formula, the joint probability of being a sampled case is \(P(Y=1,S=1)=\pi s_1\). The probability of being sampled is the sum of the sampled-case and sampled-control probabilities: \(P(S=1)=\pi s_1+(1-\pi)s_0\). Dividing the first probability by the second gives the stated conditional probability.
Worked Example: A Sample Half Cases, a Population One-Tenth Cases
Suppose the population prevalence is \(\pi=0.10\). Investigators sample 80% of cases and 10% of noncases, so \(s_1=0.80\) and \(s_0=0.10\). What fraction of the sample will be cases?
The probability of being a sampled case, per person in the population, is \(0.10(0.80)=0.08\). The probability of being a sampled control is \(0.90(0.10)=0.09\). Therefore the total sampling probability is \(0.08+0.09=0.17\), and the sampled case fraction is \(0.08/0.17=8/17\approx0.4706\).
The sample is nearly half cases even though the population prevalence is 10%. The difference is not a statistical anomaly: it follows directly from the higher sampling probability for cases. Substituting into the formula gives the same result: \(0.10(0.80)/[0.10(0.80)+0.90(0.10)]=0.08/0.17\).
Error 2: Reading Sample Probabilities as Population Risks
A logistic model fitted to an ordinary case-control sample can produce probabilities for membership in that sample, or fitted conditional odds under the sampling scheme. Those probabilities are not automatically population risks. Under outcome-only sampling, the odds identity below shows why: sampling multiplies the population odds by the ratio of the case and control sampling probabilities.
Proof. By the definition of conditional probability, \(q(x)=P(Y=1,S=1\mid X=x)/P(S=1\mid X=x)\). For the odds, it is convenient to divide the sampled-case probability by the sampled-control probability:
The second equality uses the definition of \(s_y(x)\); the last uses \(P(Y=0\mid X=x)=1-p(x)\). Positivity makes the odds ratios well-defined. \(\square\)
If selection depends on outcome alone, then \(s_1(x)=s_1\) and \(s_0(x)=s_0\) are constant across covariate values. Taking logarithms shows that selection adds the constant \(\log(s_1/s_0)\) to the population log odds. In a correctly specified logistic model this shifts the intercept, while leaving the covariate slopes unchanged. That fact does not make the sample intercept or its uncorrected fitted probabilities population risks.
Worked Example: Correcting a Sample Probability
At a covariate value \(x\), suppose the fitted sample probability is \(q(x)=0.60\). Cases are sampled with probability \(s_1=0.90\), and controls with probability \(s_0=0.10\). Calculate the corresponding population risk under outcome-only sampling.
The sample odds are \(q/(1-q)=0.60/0.40=1.5\). The sampling ratio is \(s_1/s_0=0.90/0.10=9\), so the population odds are \(1.5/9=1/6\). Converting odds to a probability gives \(p=(1/6)/(1+1/6)=1/7\approx0.1429\).
The formula gives the same answer: \(p=0.60(0.10)/[0.60(0.10)+0.40(0.90)]=0.06/0.42=1/7\). Reporting 0.60 as the population risk would therefore be seriously misleading. The correction is valid only if the stated sampling fractions apply to the target population and selection is outcome-only; if those conditions fail, this conversion need not recover risk.
Error 3: Ignoring Covariate-Dependent Selection
The slope-preservation result depends on the ratio \(s_1(x)/s_0(x)\) being constant in \(x\). If control selection, case selection, or both vary with covariates, the added term in the selected log odds can itself depend on \(x\). A fitted association may then reflect the sampling mechanism as well as the population relationship.
This follows by taking logarithms of the proved odds identity. In particular, if the population risk does not vary with \(x\), but \(s_1(x)/s_0(x)\) does, then the sampled outcome probability can vary with \(x\). Conversely, if \(s_1(x)=s_0(x)\) for every \(x\), the ratio is one and selection does not change the conditional outcome odds given \(X\), even though the distribution of \(X\) in the sample may differ from its population distribution.
Worked Example: Selection Creates an Apparent Covariate Effect
Suppose population risk is 0.10 at both \(X=0\) and \(X=1\), so \(X\) has no population association with the outcome. Cases are sampled with probability 0.50 at both covariate values. Controls are sampled with probability 0.10 when \(X=0\) and 0.50 when \(X=1\). Find the sampled outcome probabilities.
For \(X=0\), the population odds are \(0.10/0.90=1/9\), and the sampling ratio is \(0.50/0.10=5\). The sampled odds are therefore \(5/9\), giving \(q(0)=(5/9)/(1+5/9)=5/14\approx0.3571\).
For \(X=1\), the population odds are still \(1/9\), but the sampling ratio is \(0.50/0.50=1\). The sampled odds remain \(1/9\), giving \(q(1)=1/10=0.10\).
The sampled data show a large difference, \(0.3571\) versus \(0.10\), despite equal population risks. It is the covariate-dependent selection ratio—not a population effect of \(X\)—that creates the difference. An analysis must model or otherwise account for the actual selection design before interpreting this contrast as a population association.
Error 4: Applying the Rare-Disease Approximation Automatically
For a binary exposure, the population odds ratio and risk ratio are related, but they are not generally equal. If \(p_0\) and \(p_1\) are the risks in the unexposed and exposed groups, respectively, then \(\mathrm{OR}=\{p_1/(1-p_1)\}/\{p_0/(1-p_0)\}\) and \(\mathrm{RR}=p_1/p_0\). Algebra gives the exact relationship \(\mathrm{OR}=\mathrm{RR}(1-p_0)/(1-p_1)\). When both risks are small, the factor \((1-p_0)/(1-p_1)\) is close to one, so the odds ratio can approximate the risk ratio. When risks are not small, the approximation may be poor. A case-control design does not make this approximation true; it concerns the sizes of the population risks.
Worked Example: A Poor Rare-Disease Approximation
Suppose the risks are \(p_0=0.20\) for the unexposed and \(p_1=0.40\) for the exposed. Calculate both measures and compare them.
The risk ratio is \(\mathrm{RR}=0.40/0.20=2\). The odds ratio is \((0.40/0.60)/(0.20/0.80)=(2/3)/(1/4)=8/3\approx2.667\). The exact relationship confirms this: \(2(1-0.20)/(1-0.40)=2(0.80/0.60)=8/3\).
Here the odds ratio is about one-third larger than the risk ratio, so calling it “approximately the risk ratio” is not defensible. By contrast, if \(p_0=0.01\) and \(p_1=0.02\), then \(\mathrm{RR}=2\) while \(\mathrm{OR}=(0.02/0.98)/(0.01/0.99)\approx2.0204\). The approximation is close in this second example because both risks are small, not simply because the data came from case-control sampling.
A Practical Diagnostic Checklist
Before interpreting a case-control analysis, state the target population and outcome period, then check what the sampling design permits you to estimate. Earlier material on intercept correction, covariate-dependent selection, and population risk prediction develops the corresponding methods; the key here is not to confuse a design-dependent quantity with its population counterpart.
Distinguish population prevalence or risk, population odds, a risk ratio, and an odds ratio. They are not interchangeable.
Check whether case and control sampling probabilities are constant across covariates and whether the relevant probabilities are known.
Ask whether the fitted probability refers to the sampled data or the target population, and whether calibration is supported by known sampling information or external prevalence data.
If using an odds ratio as a proxy for a risk ratio, inspect risks in both comparison groups rather than relying on the case-control label.
Common Mistakes
- “Half the sample are cases, so prevalence is 50%.” That conclusion ignores outcome-dependent recruitment. The sample fraction equals population prevalence only under particular sampling conditions.
- “The fitted probability is the patient's risk.” A sample probability can incorporate the case-to-control sampling ratio. Recovering population risk requires appropriate calibration information and assumptions.
- “Case-control sampling preserves every logistic slope.” It preserves the population slopes under outcome-only sampling with a constant sampling ratio, not under arbitrary covariate-dependent selection.
- “The rare-disease approximation applies because this is a case-control study.” The approximation depends on population risks being small in both groups; the design does not guarantee that.
Check Your Understanding
For each question, identify the sampling assumption or population quantity that matters.
- A study recruits 300 cases and 300 controls. Can the sample case fraction estimate population prevalence? Explain.
- Under outcome-only sampling, what happens to the population log-odds model when the ratio of case to control sampling probabilities is constant across covariates?
- Why can covariate-dependent control selection produce a sampled association when the population risk does not vary with that covariate?
- If a sample probability is \(q(x)\), which sampling information is needed to convert it to population risk using the outcome-only formula?
- For what values of the two group risks is an odds ratio most likely to approximate a risk ratio, and why must both risks be considered?