Tutorials › Response-Adaptive Randomization › Sensitivity of Neyman Targets to Variance Misspecification

Optimal Allocation Targets · Tutorial 118 of 501

Sensitivity of Neyman Targets to Variance Misspecification

Learn to translate variance misspecification into allocation shifts and quantify the resulting loss in contrast precision against the correctly specified Neyman benchmark.

Intermediate 11 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Relate assumed arm variances to the two-arm Neyman allocation share.
  • Derive the achieved-variance penalty relative to the correctly specified continuous target.
  • Calculate and interpret variance inflation in a numerical example, separating it from integer-rounding effects.
  • Build a sensitivity table showing how assumed standard-deviation ratios affect allocation and precision.
  • Diagnose when pilot variance estimates make a target fragile and compare it with equal allocation.

Why Variance Misspecification Matters

A Neyman allocation assigns more participants to the arm with the larger outcome standard deviation, because that arm needs more observations to contribute comparable precision to a difference in means. In practice, the standard deviations used to set the target may come from a pilot study or other preliminary information. If their relative sizes are wrong, the target shifts. The key question is not only how far the target moves, but how much precision that shift costs when the true variances differ from the assumed ones.

This tutorial studies that sensitivity for a two-arm contrast, with equal per-participant costs and a fixed total sample size. The calculations describe the variance of a difference in sample means under a fixed allocation. They are a benchmark for a target; they do not by themselves specify a response-adaptive randomization procedure or guarantee that a trial will realize the target exactly.

Definition: Let \(n_1\) and \(n_0\) be the sample sizes in arms 1 and 0, with \(N=n_1+n_0\). Let the independent outcomes in the two arms have means \(\mu_1,\mu_0\) and variances \(\sigma_1^2,\sigma_0^2\). For the contrast \(\bar{x}_1-\bar{x}_0\), its variance under fixed allocation is \(V(n_1,n_0)=\sigma_1^2/n_1+\sigma_0^2/n_0\). The continuous two-arm Neyman target uses the share \(q^*=\sigma_1/(\sigma_1+\sigma_0)\) in arm 1, and \(1-q^*\) in arm 0.

The variance formula assumes independent observations within and between arms, finite arm-specific variances, and positive sample sizes. The contrast is a difference of sample means, so its variance is the sum of the two sample-mean variances. For the target derived here, costs per participant are equal and the total \(N\) is fixed. If the variances are not known, replacing them with estimates creates a plug-in target; the earlier material on Plug-In Neyman Targets From Pilot Variances introduces that construction. Here the focus is what happens when those estimates are inaccurate.

How the Target Responds to Assumed Variances

Write \(\hat{\sigma}_1^2\) and \(\hat{\sigma}_0^2\) for the variances assumed when choosing the target. These might be pilot sample variances \(s_1^2\) and \(s_0^2\), or other planning values. The plug-in share is \( \hat{q}=\sqrt{\hat{\sigma}_1^2}/(\sqrt{\hat{\sigma}_1^2}+\sqrt{\hat{\sigma}_0^2}) \). It is the ratio of assumed standard deviations, not the ratio of assumed variances, that directly determines the allocation ratio: \( \hat{q}/(1-\hat{q})=\sqrt{\hat{\sigma}_1^2/\hat{\sigma}_0^2} \).

Consequently, multiplying both assumed variances by the same positive constant leaves the target unchanged. What matters is their relative misspecification. If the assumed variance in arm 1 is too large relative to the assumed variance in arm 0, the target assigns an excessive share to arm 1. If the relative error goes in the other direction, the target shifts toward arm 0.

Deriving the Variance Penalty

Let \(q=n_1/N\), so \(n_0=N(1-q)\), with \(0<q<1\). Write \(a=\sigma_1\) and \(b=\sigma_0\) for the true standard deviations. The true contrast variance at share \(q\) is \(V(q)=N^{-1}(a^2/q+b^2/(1-q))\). The correctly specified continuous target is \(q^*=a/(a+b)\), at which the minimum variance is \((a+b)^2/N\).

The following algebra gives the excess variance directly. It also shows why small target errors are often less costly than large ones, but does not make a poor allocation costless.

1
Put the difference over a common denominator.
Subtract the optimum numerator and combine the terms over \(q(1-q)\).
2
Factor the result.
The numerator becomes the square of the difference between the arm-specific contributions at share \(q\).
3
Express it as a relative penalty.
Use \(q^*=a/(a+b)\), then divide by the minimum variance.
$$ \begin{aligned} a^2/q+b^2/(1-q)-(a+b)^2 &=\frac{a^2(1-q)+b^2q-(a+b)^2q(1-q)}{q(1-q)}\\ &=\frac{\{a(1-q)-bq\}^2}{q(1-q)}\\ &=\frac{(a+b)^2(q-q^*)^2}{q(1-q)}. \end{aligned} $$
$$ \frac{V(q)}{V(q^*)} =1+\frac{(q-q^*)^2}{q(1-q)}. $$

This identity is exact for the continuous fixed-allocation variance model. The relative excess depends on the discrepancy between the chosen and optimal shares, scaled by \(q(1-q)\). It is zero at the correct target and positive for every other interior share. It is not a probability statement and does not include other sources of uncertainty, such as uncertainty in estimating the treatment effect.

Key result: To assess variance misspecification, first calculate the share selected from the assumed standard deviations, then evaluate that share using the true variances. The formula \(V(q)/V(q^*)-1=(q-q^*)^2/\{q(1-q)\}\) gives the proportional variance increase over the correctly specified continuous Neyman target.

Worked Examples and Sensitivity Calculations

Worked Example: A Misspecified Target With a 15.75% Continuous-Benchmark Penalty

Suppose a hypothetical two-arm trial plans \(N=11\) participants. The true variances are \(\sigma_1^2=704\) and \(\sigma_0^2=2475\), in squared outcome units. Preliminary assumptions are \(\hat{\sigma}_1^2=36\) and \(\hat{\sigma}_0^2=25\). Find the plug-in target and its achieved contrast variance under the true variances.

The assumed standard deviations are 6 and 5, so the assumed share in arm 1 is \( \hat{q}=6/(6+5)=6/11 \). At \(N=11\), this gives the integer target \(n_1=6,n_0=5\). Its variance, evaluated with the true arm variances, is \( V(6,5)=704/6+2475/5=117.333+495=612.333 \) squared outcome units.

The true continuous Neyman share is \( q^*=\sqrt{704}/(\sqrt{704}+\sqrt{2475})=8/23\), because \(\sqrt{704}=8\sqrt{11}\) and \(\sqrt{2475}=15\sqrt{11}\). Its continuous minimum variance is \( V(q^*)=(\sqrt{704}+\sqrt{2475})^2/11=529 \) squared outcome units. Thus the chosen target’s variance relative to this continuous benchmark is \( (612.333/529-1)\times100=15.75\% \) (to two decimal places). Equivalently, it is about 1.158 times the benchmark variance.

The continuous comparison isolates the variance cost against the ideal share. Integer allocation also matters: among integer allocations summing to 11, \(n_1=4,n_0=7\) gives \(704/4+2475/7=529.571\), which is the smallest integer-allocation variance. Compared with that feasible benchmark, the \(6,5\) target is about \( (612.333/529.571-1)\times100=15.63\% \) higher. The distinction prevents attributing the small gap between the continuous and integer optima to variance misspecification.

Worked Example: A Sensitivity Table Across Assumed Ratios

Suppose the true standard deviations are \(\sigma_1=2\) and \(\sigma_0=1\), and \(N=100\). The correct share is \(q^*=2/3\), and the minimum contrast variance is \((2+1)^2/100=0.0900\) squared outcome units. The table varies the assumed standard-deviation ratio \(r=\sqrt{\hat{\sigma}_1^2/\hat{\sigma}_0^2}\). Each target is calculated from \(\hat{q}=r/(1+r)\), then evaluated using the true variances.

Assumed SD ratio \(r\)Target share \(\hat{q}\)Variance at targetExcess over 0.0900
0.50.33330.135050.00%
10.50000.100011.11%
20.66670.09000.00%
40.80000.100011.11%

For example, at the equal-allocation target \(q=0.5\), the true variance is \( (1/100)\{4/0.5+1/0.5\}=0.1000 \). Relative to 0.0900, this is \((0.1000/0.0900-1)\times100=11.11\%\) higher. The table illustrates that over-allocating to either arm can be costly, and that the penalty depends on the target share as well as the direction of the error.

Worked Example: A Moderate Pilot Error and a Small Precision Loss

In another hypothetical planning problem, let the true standard deviations be \(\sigma_1=3\) and \(\sigma_0=2\), with \(N=60\). Suppose pilot estimates give \(s_1=4\) and \(s_0=2\), so the plug-in target uses \(\hat{q}=4/(4+2)=2/3\), or 40 participants in arm 1 and 20 in arm 0.

The true optimum is \(q^*=3/(3+2)=0.6\). Evaluating the plug-in target under the true variances gives \( V(40,20)=9/40+4/20=0.225+0.200=0.425 \) squared outcome units. The continuous minimum is \( V(q^*)=(3+2)^2/60=25/60=0.4167 \) squared outcome units. The excess is \( (0.425/0.4167-1)\times100=2.00\% \) (up to rounding). The target is not optimal, but its modest share error produces a modest variance penalty in this case.

For comparison, equal allocation gives \(V(30,30)=9/30+4/30=0.4333\), slightly larger than the plug-in target’s variance. Misspecification therefore does not imply that a target must be worse than every alternative; its consequence depends on the true variances and on which alternative is used as the comparator.

Diagnostics, Comparisons, and Limitations

A practical sensitivity analysis should vary the relative assumed variances, not just add or subtract the same amount from both. One simple approach is to choose a set of plausible assumed standard-deviation ratios, convert each to a target share, and calculate the true or scenario-specific variance at each share. If the plausible ratios produce widely separated shares or appreciably different variances, the allocation target is sensitive to the variance inputs. When the true variances are unknown, this is a scenario analysis, not proof that any particular scenario is correct.

Pilot estimates can be unstable, especially with few observations, and the uncertainty in \(s_1^2\) and \(s_0^2\) can make their ratio unstable as well. Inspect the arm-specific sample sizes and variability, check that variance estimates use comparable outcome definitions and scales, and report the assumed values alongside the resulting target. A suspiciously extreme ratio, or a target that changes substantially under modest plausible perturbations, is a warning to avoid presenting the plug-in allocation as precisely determined.

ApproachWhat determines the shareRole in sensitivity assessment
Correctly specified Neyman targetTrue standard-deviation ratioContinuous minimum-variance benchmark under the stated assumptions
Plug-in Neyman targetAssumed or estimated standard-deviation ratioTarget whose achieved variance is evaluated under plausible true variances
Equal allocationOne half in each armSimple comparator; it is optimal when the arm variances are equal under equal costs

These comparisons apply to an unweighted difference in two arm means under equal costs and a fixed total sample size. They do not account for unequal costs, additional constraints, changing variances over time, or other objectives for allocation. Nor does the continuous formula eliminate integer rounding: when the total sample size is small, calculate the variance for feasible integer allocations before interpreting a continuous-target comparison. The calculations also presume that the variance relevant to the planned contrast is represented by the stated arm variances.

Common Pitfall

Common mistake: “The pilot variance in arm 1 is twice as large, so the Neyman target should allocate twice as many participants to arm 1.” This confuses variances with standard deviations. The allocation ratio is the square root of the variance ratio: if \(\hat{\sigma}_1^2/\hat{\sigma}_0^2=2\), then the target sample-size ratio is \(\sqrt{2}:1\), not \(2:1\). A second mistake is to calculate the target from assumed variances and then evaluate its achieved precision using those same assumptions. Sensitivity assessment requires evaluating the selected share under the true variances, or under clearly stated alternative variance scenarios.

Check Your Understanding

Answer each question, then compare your reasoning with the solutions.

  1. If the assumed variance ratio \(\hat{\sigma}_1^2/\hat{\sigma}_0^2\) is 9, what is the plug-in sample-size ratio \(n_1/n_0\)?
  2. For true standard deviations \(a=3\) and \(b=1\), what is the optimal arm 1 share? What is the continuous minimum contrast variance when \(N=40\)?
  3. With true standard deviations 2 and 1, compare the variance at \(q=1/2\) with the minimum variance, as a percentage increase.
  4. Why does multiplying both assumed variances by four leave the plug-in target unchanged?
  5. A sensitivity table shows large variance changes across plausible variance ratios. What does that suggest, and what does it not establish?

Solutions. (1) The sample-size ratio is the square root of the variance ratio, so \(n_1/n_0=\sqrt{9}=3\). (2) The optimal share is \(q^*=3/(3+1)=0.75\); the minimum variance is \((3+1)^2/40=0.400\) squared outcome units. (3) The true minimum is \(9/100=0.0900\) for \(N=100\) if using that total; more generally the ratio is independent of \(N\). At \(q=1/2\), \(V/V^*=(4/0.5+1/0.5)/(2+1)^2=10/9\), so the increase is \(11.11\%\). (4) Multiplying both variances by four multiplies both assumed standard deviations by two, leaving their ratio, and hence the target share, unchanged. (5) It suggests that allocation precision depends materially on the variance assumptions and should be reported as a range of scenarios. It does not show which variance scenario is true or quantify uncertainty in the treatment effect.

Clinical Biostats