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Haplotypes and Linkage Disequilibrium · Tutorial 138 of 989

Interpreting Correlated Variants at an Associated Locus

Use haplotype frequencies and LD to interpret a lead association marker, compare correlated variants, and separate evidence of association from evidence of causality.

Intermediate 10 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Define haplotype frequencies and allelic \(D\) and \(r^2\) for two biallelic variants.
  • Distinguish a lead marker from a putative causal variant.
  • Explain how linkage disequilibrium can produce association signals at multiple variants.
  • Relate allelic correlation to genotype-dosage correlation only under stated assumptions.
  • Identify what an association pattern and LD cannot establish about causality.

From an Association Signal to a Set of Correlated Variants

An association analysis may identify a variant whose genotype is associated with a trait. That variant is often called the lead marker: usually, it is the variant with the smallest p-value among those tested in the region. The label describes the result of a statistical comparison, not a biological conclusion. A nearby variant may have a similar association because the two variants are inherited together often enough that one can act as a marker for the other.

Interpreting such a locus requires keeping three ideas separate: the variant tested, the pattern of linkage disequilibrium (LD) between variants, and the variant that—if any—has a causal effect on the trait. Haplotype frequencies and LD measures describe how alleles co-occur in the sampled population. They can show why multiple variants may carry similar association information, but they do not by themselves identify which variant affects the trait.

Definition: At two biallelic variants, a haplotype records the alleles carried together on one chromosome. Write \(p_{11},p_{10},p_{01},p_{00}\) for the frequencies of haplotypes \(11,10,01,00\), where the first digit is the allele at marker \(M\) and the second is the allele at variant \(C\). The allele frequencies are \(p_M=p_{11}+p_{10}\) and \(p_C=p_{11}+p_{01}\). The LD coefficient is \(D=p_{11}-p_Mp_C\), and the squared allelic correlation is \(r^2=D^2/[p_M(1-p_M)p_C(1-p_C)]\), when both allele frequencies are strictly between zero and one.

Here, \(C\) is simply a label for a second variant under consideration; the notation does not imply that it is causal. \(D>0\) means the two coded alleles occur together more often than expected under independence, while \(D<0\) means they occur together less often. The \(r^2\) measure ranges from zero to one and describes the strength of allelic correlation without its direction. The sign of \(D\), together with the allele coding, is needed to interpret which allele at one variant tends to accompany which allele at the other.

A large \(r^2\) indicates that the allele at one variant predicts the allele at the other relatively well in the population and sample being described. It does not mean that the variants are identical, that both affect the trait, or that either has a causal effect. The frequencies and LD may differ across populations, and an estimated LD measure is subject to sampling uncertainty.

What a Lead Marker Does—and Does Not—Tell Us

An association test evaluates a specified variant, usually by comparing trait outcomes across its genotype dosages under a chosen model. A lead marker is the tested variant that ranks most strongly by the selected criterion, commonly the smallest p-value. It is not necessarily the variant with the largest biological effect: p-values also depend on allele frequency, sample size, standard error, imputation quality, and the analysis model.

When two variants are correlated, their genotype dosages can contain overlapping information. If a causal variant is not directly measured, a correlated marker may still be associated with the trait because people carrying the marker allele are more likely to carry the causal allele. The marker then provides statistical evidence about the region, but the association does not show that changing the marker itself would change the trait.

The following relationship makes the relevant assumption explicit. Let \(G_M\) and \(G_C\) be the allele dosages (0, 1, or 2) for the coded alleles at \(M\) and \(C\). Suppose haplotypes are paired independently to form individuals, both loci are biallelic, and the dosages are standardized to \(Z_M\) and \(Z_C\), each with mean zero and variance one. Under this random-pairing assumption, the correlation between standardized dosages equals the allelic correlation \(r\). If the trait follows an additive model with \(C\) as the causal variant, the marginal association at \(M\) is then related to LD as follows.

$$ Y=\mu+\gamma Z_C+\varepsilon,\qquad E(\varepsilon\mid Z_M,Z_C)=0 $$
$$ \beta_M =\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(Z_M,Y)}{\operatorname{Var}(Z_M)} =\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(Z_M,\gamma Z_C+\varepsilon)}{1} =\gamma\,\operatorname{Corr}(Z_M,Z_C) =\gamma r. $$

In this model, \(\gamma\) is the expected change in the outcome per one-standard-deviation increase in the causal-variant dosage, and \(\beta_M\) is the marginal change per one-standard-deviation increase in marker dosage. This relation is not a universal conversion from haplotype \(r\) to an association effect. It relies on the stated random pairing, additive model, dosage standardization, and error condition. Without those assumptions, haplotype-level \(r^2\) alone does not determine the genotype-dosage correlation or the marker’s regression slope.

Worked Example: Calculating LD Between a Lead Marker and a Candidate Variant

Suppose 1,000 phased chromosomes in a hypothetical sample have haplotype counts \(420\) for \(11\), \(80\) for \(10\), \(80\) for \(01\), and \(420\) for \(00\). Treat the first allele as the coded allele at marker \(M\), and the second as the coded allele at candidate variant \(C\). Calculate \(D\) and \(r^2\), then interpret the result.

The frequencies are \(p_{11}=420/1000=0.42\), \(p_{10}=0.08\), \(p_{01}=0.08\), and \(p_{00}=0.42\). Thus \(p_M=0.42+0.08=0.50\) and \(p_C=0.42+0.08=0.50\). Substitution gives:

$$ D=0.42-(0.50)(0.50)=0.17 $$
$$ r^2=\frac{(0.17)^2}{(0.50)(0.50)(0.50)(0.50)} =\frac{0.0289}{0.0625}=0.4624. $$

The positive \(D\) indicates that the coded alleles co-occur more often than expected under independence. The allelic correlation is \(r=+\sqrt{0.4624}=0.68\), with the positive sign following from \(D>0\). The \(r^2\) value indicates a moderate degree of allelic correlation, not identity. If \(M\) is the lead marker in an association analysis, these frequencies support the interpretation that it carries some information about \(C\); they do not show that \(C\) affects the trait or that it explains the marker’s association.

Why Several Variants Can Share One Signal

An associated locus often contains a group of correlated variants. If one member of that group is related to the trait, alleles at other members may track it through LD. Consequently, several variants can each have small p-values even though the analysis has not shown that each one has an independent effect. Their test results are correlated, not a set of independent confirmations.

Association statistics for correlated variants need not be exactly equal. Differences can arise from imperfect LD, allele frequencies, missingness, imputation quality, standard errors, or details of the test. A variant with the smallest p-value is therefore the lead marker for that analysis, not automatically the causal variant. The association pattern identifies statistical evidence in the region; distinguishing among correlated candidates generally requires evidence beyond the LD pattern alone.

Worked Example: Translating Allelic LD Into a Dosage Association

Consider hypothetical haplotype frequencies \(p_{11}=0.45\), \(p_{10}=0.05\), \(p_{01}=0.05\), and \(p_{00}=0.45\). Suppose, in addition, that chromosomes pair independently into individuals. Assume the outcome follows the additive model above, with candidate variant \(C\) as the causal variant and \(\gamma=0.50\) outcome standard deviations per one-standard-deviation increase in \(C\) dosage. Find the expected marginal slope at \(M\).

Both coded-allele frequencies equal \(0.45+0.05=0.50\), so \(D=0.45-(0.50)(0.50)=0.20\). Therefore:

$$ r^2=\frac{(0.20)^2}{(0.50)(0.50)(0.50)(0.50)} =\frac{0.04}{0.0625}=0.64, \qquad r=+\sqrt{0.64}=0.80. $$

Because the haplotypes are assumed to pair independently, the genotype-dosage correlation is also \(0.80\). Applying the additive model relationship gives:

$$ \beta_M=\gamma r=(0.50)(0.80)=0.40. $$

Under these assumptions, the expected marginal association at the marker is \(0.40\) outcome standard deviations per one-standard-deviation increase in marker dosage. This is smaller than the specified causal-variant slope of \(0.50\) because the marker is an imperfect proxy. The calculation does not establish that \(C\) is actually causal; it describes what would follow if the stated model and assumptions held.

LD Is Not a Causal Test

LD describes co-occurrence of alleles, whereas causality concerns what would happen to the trait if a variant were changed while relevant conditions were held fixed. A haplotype table contains no direct information about that intervention. Even a very high \(r^2\) cannot decide whether the marker, a correlated candidate, another unmeasured variant, or a combination of factors accounts for the association.

Perfect LD makes the limitation especially clear. If two variants have identical genotypes in every analyzed individual, their single-variant association tests contain the same genotype information. An association at both sites cannot distinguish which site, if either, has a causal effect. Less-than-perfect LD may provide some statistical separation, but LD values alone still do not prove a causal mechanism. Functional evidence and other appropriately designed analyses may contribute to causal assessment, but they are distinct from calculating LD.

Worked Example: Perfect LD Does Not Identify the Causal Variant

In a hypothetical set of 1,000 phased chromosomes, suppose there are 300 haplotypes \(11\), none \(10\), none \(01\), and 700 haplotypes \(00\). Suppose the two variants have identical genotypes in the analyzed individuals, and both are reported with the same association p-value of \(2.0\times10^{-9}\). Calculate their LD and explain what the association results establish.

Each coded-allele frequency is \(0.30\). Therefore:

$$ D=0.30-(0.30)(0.30)=0.21, \qquad r^2=\frac{(0.21)^2}{(0.30)(0.70)(0.30)(0.70)} =\frac{0.0441}{0.0441}=1. $$

The two coded alleles are in perfect positive allelic correlation in these data. Given the stated identical genotypes and the same analysis sample and test, the association tests use identical genotype information, so the matching p-values are consistent. The results support an association with the shared genotype pattern under the tested model. They do not distinguish the two variants as causal: either could be causal, another perfectly correlated feature could be involved, or the association could arise for a different reason. The LD calculation alone cannot resolve those possibilities.

A Short Justification for the Dosage-Correlation Condition

It is useful to see why random pairing matters in the dosage calculation. Let \(A_{M1}\) and \(A_{M2}\) be the coded-allele indicators on the two chromosomes of an individual, and define \(G_M=A_{M1}+A_{M2}\). Define \(G_C\) analogously. If the two haplotypes are independently paired, each chromosome has the same allelic covariance \(\operatorname{Cov}(A_M,A_C)\), and cross-chromosome covariances are zero. Thus:

$$ \operatorname{Cov}(G_M,G_C) =2\operatorname{Cov}(A_M,A_C), \qquad \operatorname{Var}(G_M)=2p_M(1-p_M), \qquad \operatorname{Var}(G_C)=2p_C(1-p_C). $$

The allelic correlation is \(r=\operatorname{Cov}(A_M,A_C)/\sqrt{p_M(1-p_M)p_C(1-p_C)}\). Substituting the dosage covariance and variances into the dosage correlation gives:

$$ \operatorname{Corr}(G_M,G_C) =\frac{2\operatorname{Cov}(A_M,A_C)} {\sqrt{2p_M(1-p_M)\,2p_C(1-p_C)}} =r. $$

Standardizing each dosage does not change its correlation, so \(\operatorname{Corr}(Z_M,Z_C)=r\). The argument depends on independent pairing of haplotypes. Haplotype frequencies describe alleles on chromosomes; without the pairing assumption, they alone do not supply every feature of the individual-level joint dosage distribution needed for this equality.

Common Pitfall and Practical Interpretation

A common mistake is to see a lead marker in strong LD with a candidate variant and conclude that the candidate is causal because the marker is associated. The reasoning confuses a predictor with an explanation: LD can make the candidate track the signal, but it does not show that the candidate generated it. A related mistake is to substitute \(\sqrt{r^2}\) from haplotype frequencies directly into a genotype-dosage effect calculation without stating assumptions. That substitution is justified in the example above only because random pairing and the additive model were explicitly assumed.

When interpreting an associated locus, state which variant is the lead marker, report the relevant LD measure and allele coding, and describe the other variants as correlated candidates or proxies unless there is additional evidence. State the population and data context for the LD estimate. Then distinguish the observed association from any causal claim. In concise terms: LD can explain why variants share a signal; LD alone cannot say which variant causes the trait.

Key takeaway: A lead marker is a statistical label, and correlated variants may share association evidence because their alleles co-occur. Haplotype LD is not itself proof of a causal variant; translating allelic correlation to dosage effects also requires explicit assumptions about haplotype pairing and the trait model.

Check Your Understanding

Answer each question using the definitions and assumptions stated above.

  1. For two variants with \(D<0\), what does the sign tell you about co-occurrence, and what does \(r^2\) omit?
  2. A marker has the smallest p-value among variants in a region. What does “lead marker” mean, and what does it not establish?
  3. Under what pairing assumption does haplotype allelic correlation equal genotype-dosage correlation for biallelic loci?
  4. If two variants have identical genotypes and identical association results, what can and cannot be inferred about which one is causal?
  5. Why can several correlated variants have small association p-values without representing several independent confirmations?
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