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Adjusted Associations and Confounding · Tutorial 179 of 991

Deriving the Omitted-Variable Bias Formula

Learn to derive and interpret the population formula for how omitting one of two predictors changes the regression slope on the predictor that remains.

Intermediate 9 min read

What You'll Learn

  • Define the full and reduced population linear projections used in the omitted-variable bias formula.
  • Derive the formula from least-squares orthogonality and the covariance expression for a slope.
  • Interpret the bias as the product of the omitted predictor’s outcome coefficient and its linear association with the included predictor.
  • Track the units and signs in the formula.
  • Identify conditions under which omitting a predictor creates no slope bias.

Why Derive the Bias Formula?

When a regression includes two predictors but a fitted model includes only one, the coefficient of the included predictor can differ from its coefficient in the two-predictor model. The difference is not mysterious: it depends on how the omitted predictor relates to the outcome and how it is associated with the included predictor. The omitted-variable bias formula makes those two ingredients explicit.

The result below is an identity between population least-squares slopes. It describes a difference between two linear summaries of the same population. It does not, by itself, establish that either slope is causal. Causal interpretation requires additional subject-matter and design assumptions.

Set Up the Two Population Projections

Let \(Y\) be an outcome, \(X\) the predictor whose coefficient is of interest, and \(Z\) a second predictor that may be omitted. Assume the variables have finite second moments and that \(\operatorname{Var}(X)>0\). Consider the population linear projection of \(Y\) on an intercept, \(X\), and \(Z\):

$$ Y=\beta_0+\beta_1X+\beta_2Z+\varepsilon. $$

Here \(\beta_0,\beta_1,\beta_2\) are the population least-squares coefficients, and \(\varepsilon\) is the projection residual. The least-squares normal equations imply that the residual has mean zero and is uncorrelated with each included predictor:

$$ E(\varepsilon)=0,\qquad \operatorname{Cov}(X,\varepsilon)=0,\qquad \operatorname{Cov}(Z,\varepsilon)=0. $$

These orthogonality statements are properties of the population linear projection. They do not require that the conditional mean of \(Y\) be exactly linear in \(X\) and \(Z\).

Now consider the population linear projection of \(Y\) on an intercept and \(X\) alone:

$$ Y=\gamma_0+\gamma_1X+u. $$

The reduced-model slope is \(\gamma_1\). The full-model slope on \(X\) is \(\beta_1\), meaning the slope in the two-predictor linear projection with \(Z\) included. We define the omitted-variable bias for this comparison as the difference \(\gamma_1-\beta_1\). This is a difference between population coefficients, not a sampling error.

Definition: In this two-predictor setting, the omitted-variable bias in the slope for \(X\) is \(\gamma_1-\beta_1\): the reduced-model population slope on \(X\) minus the full-model population slope on \(X\). The formula compares projections from the same population, with the same outcome and included predictor.

Deriving the Formula

For a population linear projection with an intercept and one predictor, the slope equals the covariance of the predictor and outcome divided by the predictor’s variance. Thus \(\gamma_1=\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y)/\operatorname{Var}(X)\). We can evaluate this covariance using the full two-predictor projection.

1
Take covariance with \(X\).
Using the full projection, covariance distributes over the sum, and the intercept has zero covariance with \(X\).
2
Use residual orthogonality.
The full-projection residual is uncorrelated with \(X\), so its covariance term is zero.
3
Divide by \(\operatorname{Var}(X)\).
This gives the reduced-model slope; subtracting \(\beta_1\) gives the bias.

In equations, the covariance calculation is:

$$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{Cov}(X,Y) &=\operatorname{Cov}\bigl(X,\beta_0+\beta_1X+\beta_2Z+\varepsilon\bigr)\\ &=\beta_1\operatorname{Var}(X) +\beta_2\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z) +\operatorname{Cov}(X,\varepsilon)\\ &=\beta_1\operatorname{Var}(X) +\beta_2\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z). \end{aligned} $$

The last equality follows from \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,\varepsilon)=0\), a normal-equation property of the full projection. Dividing both sides by \(\operatorname{Var}(X)\), which is positive by assumption, gives the reduced-model slope. Subtracting the full-model slope \(\beta_1\) yields the result.

$$ \begin{aligned} \gamma_1 &=\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)} =\beta_1+\beta_2\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)},\\ \gamma_1-\beta_1 &=\beta_2\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)}. \end{aligned} $$
Theorem: For the full population linear projection of \(Y\) on an intercept, \(X\), and \(Z\), and the reduced population linear projection of \(Y\) on an intercept and \(X\), the omitted-variable bias in the slope on \(X\) is \(\gamma_1-\beta_1=\beta_2\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)/\operatorname{Var}(X)\), provided \(\operatorname{Var}(X)>0\). The bias is the full-model coefficient of \(Z\) multiplied by the linear projection slope of \(Z\) on \(X\).

The ratio \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)/\operatorname{Var}(X)\) is the population slope from linearly projecting \(Z\) on \(X\). It describes how much the linear prediction of \(Z\) changes per one-unit increase in \(X\). The bias therefore combines two quantities: the change in the outcome associated with a unit of \(Z\), holding \(X\) fixed in the full projection, and the change in \(Z\) associated with a unit of \(X\).

The units provide a useful check. If \(Y\) is measured in points, \(Z\) in years, and \(X\) in hours, then \(\beta_2\) has units of points per year and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)/\operatorname{Var}(X)\) has units of years per hour. Their product has units of points per hour, the same as both slopes \(\gamma_1\) and \(\beta_1\).

Worked Applications

Worked Example: Study Time and Prior Preparation

Suppose a hypothetical population of students is described by \(X\), weekly study hours; \(Z\), a prior-preparation score; and \(Y\), an exam score in points. In the full population projection, the coefficient for prior preparation is \(\beta_2=0.40\) points per score point, and the coefficient for study time is \(\beta_1=0.80\) exam points per weekly study hour. Suppose \(\operatorname{Var}(X)=4\) hours\(^2\) and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)=6\) hours times score points. Find the reduced-model slope on study time.

First calculate the linear projection slope of \(Z\) on \(X\):

$$ \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)} =\frac{6}{4} =1.5\ \frac{\text{score points}}{\text{weekly study hour}}. $$

Then calculate the bias and add it to the full-model slope:

$$ \gamma_1-\beta_1 =(0.40)(1.5)=0.60\ \frac{\text{exam points}}{\text{weekly study hour}}, \qquad \gamma_1=0.80+0.60=1.40\ \frac{\text{exam points}}{\text{weekly study hour}}. $$

The reduced projection’s slope is 1.40 exam points per weekly study hour, compared with 0.80 in the full projection. In this hypothetical population, omitting prior preparation increases the slope by 0.60 exam points per weekly study hour. This calculation describes regression coefficients; it alone does not show that changing study time would cause exam scores to change by either amount.

Worked Example: Exercise and Age

In a hypothetical population, let \(X\) be weekly exercise hours, \(Z\) be age in years, and \(Y\) be systolic blood pressure in millimetres of mercury. Suppose the full projection has \(\beta_1=-1.20\) mmHg per weekly exercise hour and \(\beta_2=0.50\) mmHg per year. Suppose \(\operatorname{Var}(X)=2.25\) (weekly exercise hours)\(^2\) and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)=-4.50\) weekly exercise hours times years. Find the bias from omitting age and the reduced-model slope.

The association ratio and bias are:

$$ \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)} =\frac{-4.50}{2.25} =-2.00\ \frac{\text{years}}{\text{weekly exercise hour}}, \qquad \gamma_1-\beta_1=(0.50)(-2.00)=-1.00\ \frac{\text{mmHg}}{\text{weekly exercise hour}}. $$

Therefore,

$$ \gamma_1=\beta_1+(\gamma_1-\beta_1) =-1.20+(-1.00) =-2.20\ \frac{\text{mmHg}}{\text{weekly exercise hour}}. $$

The reduced-model slope is \(-2.20\) mmHg per weekly exercise hour, one unit more negative than the full-model slope. The negative bias follows from multiplying a positive full-projection coefficient for age by a negative linear association between age and exercise. As above, the coefficient comparison is not itself a causal conclusion.

Worked Example: A Nonzero Omitted Effect but No Bias

Consider a hypothetical population consisting of four equally weighted units. Let \(X\) and \(Z\) be coded predictors, and suppose \(Y=10+2X+3Z\) for these units.

Unit\(X\)\(Z\)\(Y\)
1-1-15
2-1111
31-19
41115

The full projection coefficients are \(\beta_1=2\) and \(\beta_2=3\). The means of \(X\) and \(Z\) are both zero. Thus \(\operatorname{Var}(X)\) is the average of the four squared \(X\) values, which equals \(1\), and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)\) is the average of the four \(XZ\) products:

$$ \operatorname{Var}(X)=\frac{1+1+1+1}{4}=1, \qquad \operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)=\frac{1-1-1+1}{4}=0. $$

The formula gives \(\gamma_1-\beta_1=3(0/1)=0\). Directly, \(\bar{Y}=10\), and the covariance of \(X\) and \(Y\) is \((-5-11+9+15)/4=2\). Therefore \(\gamma_1=2/1=2\), matching \(\beta_1\). The omitted predictor has a nonzero coefficient, but its zero linear association with \(X\) means its omission creates no bias in this slope.

Interpreting the Product and Its Limits

The formula separates the sources of bias. If \(\beta_2=0\), then \(Z\) has no slope in the full linear projection after accounting for \(X\), and this formula gives zero bias. If \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)=0\), the formula also gives zero bias, even when \(\beta_2\) is nonzero. Otherwise, the sign of the bias is the sign of the product of \(\beta_2\) and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)\), because \(\operatorname{Var}(X)\) is positive.

When the standard deviations are positive, the association ratio can also be written using the population correlation \(r_{XZ}\):

$$ \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)}{\operatorname{Var}(X)} =r_{XZ}\frac{\sigma_Z}{\sigma_X}. $$

This form emphasizes that the association’s direction alone does not determine the numerical size of bias: the scale of \(Z\) relative to \(X\) and the size of \(\beta_2\) also matter. Changing measurement units changes the numerical coefficients and association ratio in compensating ways; the resulting bias remains on the scale of \(Y\) per unit of \(X\).

The identity applies to population linear projections with the stated comparison. In a sample, estimated coefficients vary from sample to sample, and sample estimates need not equal the population coefficients. Also, the identity does not identify a causal effect: a regression coefficient can be interpreted causally only with appropriate assumptions beyond this algebraic result.

Common Mistake

A common mistake is to say, “The omitted predictor affects the outcome, so omitting it must bias the slope on \(X\).” That reasoning overlooks the association factor. A nonzero \(\beta_2\) is not sufficient: if \(X\) and \(Z\) have zero covariance in the population, then \(\beta_2\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)/\operatorname{Var}(X)=0\). The reverse shortcut is also wrong: an omitted predictor associated with \(X\) does not create bias under this formula if \(\beta_2=0\). Check both factors and their units before interpreting the product.

Key takeaway: For the two-predictor population comparison, the reduced slope on \(X\) equals the full slope on \(X\) plus the omitted predictor’s full-model coefficient times the slope from projecting \(Z\) on \(X\). Both the omitted predictor’s outcome association and its association with \(X\) determine the bias.

Check Your Understanding

Use the formula and state your reasoning in terms of the variables and units.

  1. In the two-predictor projection, what does \(\beta_1\) represent, and how is it different from \(\gamma_1\)?
  2. If \(\beta_2=1.2\), \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)=-3\), and \(\operatorname{Var}(X)=2\), calculate \(\gamma_1-\beta_1\).
  3. Can omitting \(Z\) produce zero bias when \(\beta_2\) is nonzero? Give the condition in the formula.
  4. If the bias is positive, what can you conclude about the signs of \(\beta_2\) and \(\operatorname{Cov}(X,Z)\)?
  5. Why does the formula not, by itself, establish a causal effect of \(X\) on \(Y\)?