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Convergence Comparisons · Tutorial 347 of 998

When Limit Comparison Is Inconclusive

Learn how to diagnose an inconclusive limit comparison and replace it with a bound or comparison model that resolves the integral.

Intermediate 10 min read

What You'll Learn

  • State what a comparison ratio tending to zero or infinity can establish.
  • Identify why an inconclusive ratio does not settle convergence.
  • Use direct upper and lower bounds to prove convergence or divergence.
  • Handle ratios with no limit by checking useful bounds.
  • Apply comparisons to absolute values when the integrand is signed.

When a Limit Comparison Does Not Decide the Integral

An improper integral can be difficult to classify directly, so it is natural to compare its integrand with a familiar model. The limit comparison test is decisive when the ratio tends to a finite, positive number. But a ratio tending to zero or infinity, or having no limit at all, does not automatically settle the question.

The useful next step is to ask what pointwise inequality the ratio does provide. That inequality may prove one direction of comparison, or it may suggest a better model that does resolve convergence.

Key principle: An inconclusive limit comparison is not a failed argument. It tells you that this particular ratio does not give enough information; a direct bound or a better comparison model may still settle the integral.

What the Ratio Can Establish

Consider nonnegative functions \(f\) and \(g\) on an interval extending to an improper endpoint. For an infinite interval, suppose \(f(x)\ge 0\) and \(g(x)>0\) for all sufficiently large \(x\). For a finite endpoint, use the corresponding conditions sufficiently close to that endpoint. The same reasoning applies in either setting.

If \(f(x)/g(x)\to 0\), then \(f(x)\le g(x)\) sufficiently close to the endpoint. If \(f(x)/g(x)\to\infty\), then \(f(x)\ge g(x)\) sufficiently close to it. These inequalities give only one direction of comparison.

Ratio behaviorWhat the comparison can establishWhat remains undecided
\(f/g\to 0\)If \(\int g\) converges, then \(\int f\) converges.If \(\int g\) diverges, the smaller function \(f\) may converge or diverge.
\(f/g\to\infty\)If \(\int g\) diverges, then \(\int f\) diverges.If \(\int g\) converges, the larger function \(f\) may converge or diverge.
\(f/g\) has no limitUseful upper or lower bounds on the ratio may still give a comparison.The absence of a limit alone gives no convergence conclusion.

In particular, these cases differ from the standard limit comparison result: a finite positive limit gives two-sided bounds by constant multiples of \(g\), so the two integrals have the same convergence behavior. A zero or infinite limit generally gives only a one-sided bound.

Why the One-Sided Conclusions Are Valid

Here is the reasoning for the case \(f/g\to 0\). Since \(f/g\) tends to zero, there is a point \(X\) beyond which \(0\le f(x)/g(x)\le 1\). Because \(g(x)>0\), this implies \(0\le f(x)\le g(x)\) there.

$$ 0\le \int_X^T f(x)\,dx \le \int_X^T g(x)\,dx $$

for every \(T>X\). If the improper integral of \(g\) converges, the right-hand side remains bounded as \(T\) increases. The increasing truncated integrals of the nonnegative function \(f\) are therefore bounded, so they have a finite limit. Thus \(\int_X^\infty f(x)\,dx\) converges. The part of the integral over any finite interval away from the improper endpoint does not affect this conclusion, provided it is proper and finite.

When \(f/g\to\infty\), the same argument gives \(f(x)\ge g(x)\) sufficiently far out. If \(\int g\) diverges, then the truncated integrals of \(f\) are at least as large as those of \(g\), and hence are unbounded. Therefore \(\int f\) diverges. At a finite singular endpoint, take truncated integrals approaching that endpoint and use the same inequalities.

Notice what the proof does not say. The inequality \(f\le g\) cannot force \(f\) to diverge when \(g\) diverges; a smaller nonnegative function may still have a finite integral. Likewise, \(f\ge g\) cannot force \(f\) to converge just because \(g\) does.

Worked Example: A Zero Ratio with a Divergent Comparator

Worked Example: Find a Better Model After a Zero Limit

Consider \(\int_e^\infty \frac{1}{x(\ln x)^2}\,dx\). First compare its integrand \(f(x)=1/[x(\ln x)^2]\) with \(g(x)=1/x\). The ratio is

$$ \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \frac{1}{(\ln x)^2} \longrightarrow 0. $$

But \(\int_e^\infty 1/x\,dx\) diverges, so this comparison alone is inconclusive. Instead, choose \(h(x)=1/[x(\ln x)^{3/2}]\). For \(x\ge e\), \(\ln x\ge 1\), and

$$ \frac{f(x)}{h(x)} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\ln x}} \le 1. $$

The comparison integral converges. With \(u=\ln x\), so that \(du=dx/x\),

$$ \int_e^\infty \frac{dx}{x(\ln x)^{3/2}} = \int_1^\infty u^{-3/2}\,du = \lim_{R\to\infty}\left[-2u^{-1/2}\right]_1^R = 2. $$

Thus \(0\le f\le h\) and the integral of \(h\) is finite, so the integral of \(f\) converges. As a check, an antiderivative of \(f\) is \(-1/\ln x\), since

$$ \frac{d}{dx}\left(-\frac{1}{\ln x}\right) = \frac{1}{x(\ln x)^2}. $$

Consequently, the original integral equals \(\lim_{R\to\infty}(1-1/\ln R)=1\), confirming convergence.

Worked Example: An Infinite Ratio with a Convergent Comparator

Worked Example: Use a Lower Bound to Prove Divergence

Compare \(f(x)=1/\sqrt{x}\) with \(g(x)=1/x^2\) on \([1,\infty)\). Their ratio is

$$ \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = x^{3/2} \longrightarrow \infty. $$

The comparator \(g\) is integrable:

$$ \int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^2}\,dx = \lim_{R\to\infty}\left[-\frac1x\right]_1^R = 1. $$

That fact does not decide whether the larger function \(f\) is integrable. Use the divergent model \(h(x)=1/x\) instead. For \(x\ge1\), \(\sqrt{x}\le x\), so \(1/\sqrt{x}\ge1/x\). Therefore,

$$ \int_1^R \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}} \ge \int_1^R \frac{dx}{x} = \ln R. $$

As \(R\to\infty\), \(\ln R\to\infty\), so the integral of \(f\) diverges. Direct evaluation confirms this: \(\int_1^R x^{-1/2}\,dx=2(\sqrt{R}-1)\to\infty\). The lower bound by \(1/x\) correctly establishes divergence.

When the Ratio Has No Limit

A ratio without a limit is not automatically useless. It may still be bounded in a way that gives the comparison needed. If \(f\) and \(g\) are nonnegative and \(g>0\) near the endpoint, an eventual upper bound \(f/g\le M\), where \(M\) is a fixed positive constant, implies \(f\le Mg\). Thus convergence of \(\int g\) implies convergence of \(\int f\). An eventual lower bound \(f/g\ge m>0\) implies \(f\ge mg\), so divergence of \(\int g\) implies divergence of \(\int f\).

If both bounds hold, \(m\le f/g\le M\), the two integrals have the same convergence behavior. This can happen even when the ratio oscillates and has no limit.

Worked Example: An Oscillating Ratio with Useful Bounds

Consider \(f(x)=(2+\sin x)/x^2\) on \([1,\infty)\), and take \(g(x)=1/x^2\). Then

$$ \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=2+\sin x. $$

This ratio has no limit: at \(x_n=\pi/2+2\pi n\) its value is \(3\), while at \(y_n=3\pi/2+2\pi n\) its value is \(1\); both sequences tend to infinity. Nevertheless, \(-1\le\sin x\le1\) gives

$$ 1\le 2+\sin x\le3, \qquad 0\le f(x)\le \frac{3}{x^2}. $$

The upper comparison is integrable because \(\int_1^\infty 3/x^2\,dx=3\). Hence \(\int_1^\infty f(x)\,dx\) converges. The ratio's failure to have a limit does not prevent a conclusive comparison: its uniform upper bound is enough.

Signed Functions Require Extra Care

The direct comparison conclusions above require nonnegative integrands. If \(f\) changes sign, an inequality involving \(f\) does not by itself control cancellation in its integral, and a signed ratio may not be suitable for the nonnegative comparison test. To establish absolute convergence, compare \(|f|\) with a nonnegative integrable function. Absolute convergence means that \(\int |f(x)|\,dx\) converges; it guarantees convergence of the signed improper integral as well.

Worked Example: Compare the Absolute Value

Consider the signed integrand \(f(x)=\sin x/x^2\) on \([1,\infty)\). The ratio \(f(x)/(1/x^2)=\sin x\) has no limit, so use an absolute-value bound instead. Since \(|\sin x|\le1\),

$$ 0\le \left|\frac{\sin x}{x^2}\right| \le \frac{1}{x^2}. $$

The integral of the upper bound is

$$ \int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^2} = \lim_{R\to\infty}\left(1-\frac1R\right) = 1. $$

Therefore, \(\int_1^\infty |\sin x|/x^2\,dx\le1\), so the signed integral converges absolutely. This argument establishes absolute convergence; it does not infer convergence from the signed ratio alone.

A Reliable Strategy

When a limit comparison is inconclusive, keep the question narrow: what does the ratio imply as an inequality, and is that the direction needed? Then choose a model whose known behavior and inequality point the right way.

1
Check the hypotheses.
Confirm that the functions being compared are nonnegative and that the denominator is positive near the improper endpoint. For signed integrands, decide whether the goal is absolute convergence and compare absolute values.
2
Translate the ratio into a bound.
A ratio tending to zero gives an eventual upper bound; a ratio tending to infinity gives an eventual lower bound. A ratio with no limit may still have a useful uniform upper or positive lower bound.
3
Match the bound to the conclusion.
For convergence, seek an integrable upper bound. For divergence of a nonnegative integrand, seek a divergent lower bound.
4
Change the model if needed.
If the original comparator has the wrong convergence behavior, choose another familiar model, such as a power or a power with a logarithmic factor, and verify the pointwise inequality.

Common Mistake: Treating a Zero Ratio as Proof of Convergence

Consider \(f(x)=1/(x\ln x)\) and \(g(x)=1/x\) on \([e,\infty)\). The ratio \(f/g=1/\ln x\) tends to zero, and \(\int_e^\infty g(x)\,dx\) diverges. It is incorrect to conclude that \(\int f\) converges merely because \(f/g\to0\).

In fact, direct integration shows the opposite:

$$ \int_e^R \frac{dx}{x\ln x} = \ln(\ln R)-\ln(\ln e) = \ln(\ln R) \longrightarrow\infty. $$

The correction is to use the ratio only for the conclusion it supports: \(f\le g\) eventually, which does not settle convergence when \(g\) diverges. A different comparison or a direct evaluation is needed.

Why These Cases Matter

Recognizing an inconclusive comparison prevents an invalid conclusion and helps focus the next step. The goal is not to force every ratio into a limit-comparison test. It is to obtain a valid upper bound for convergence or a valid lower bound for divergence, while respecting nonnegativity and the endpoint conditions.

Check Your Understanding

For each question, identify what the comparison establishes and what additional information may be needed.

  1. If \(f,g\ge0\), \(f/g\to0\), and \(\int g\) converges, what can you conclude about \(\int f\)?
  2. If \(f,g\ge0\), \(f/g\to0\), and \(\int g\) diverges, does the ratio decide whether \(\int f\) converges?
  3. Suppose \(f/g\) has no limit but \(0\le f/g\le 4\) eventually. Which convergence conclusion follows from convergence of \(\int g\)?
  4. What pointwise inequality is useful for proving that a nonnegative improper integral diverges?
  5. Why can comparing a signed function directly with a nonnegative function be insufficient, and what should be compared to prove absolute convergence?